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liubo4ka [24]
3 years ago
5

An economic model can be defined as___________a. a testable claim which can be evaluated with proper data.b. a representation of

a theory or a part of a theory.c. another word for theory.d. a method to distinguish correlation from causation.e. All of the above are correct.
Business
1 answer:
Radda [10]3 years ago
5 0

Answer:

b. a representation of a theory or a part of a theory

Explanation:

A model is different from theory because is a more applied and empirical representation of a situation while the theory is more abstract. An economic model is a simplified prediction of a complex and real economic behavior, it uses variables to analyze different scenarios, it also uses logical and quantitative relationships between economic processes, is usually mathematical. <em>The results of these models can lead to a new investigation, theorization or to prove theories.</em>

I hope you find this information useful and interesting! Good luck!

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4 0
1 year ago
You just deposited $2,500 in a bank account that pays a 4.0% nominal interest rate, compounded quarterly. If you also add anothe
choli [55]

Answer:

The value of the investment would be $16,035.87 in 12 quarters from now

Explanation:

The value of $2,500 after four quarters can be determined with the below formula:

FV=PV*(1+r/t)^N*t

FV is the future value of the investment, the unknown

PV, the present value of the investment is the amount invested.

r is the rate of return of 4%

t is the number of times interest is paid annually,4 times in this case

After the first four quarters, the worth of the investment is shown thus:

FV=$2500*(1+4%/4)^1*4

FV=$2500*(1+1%)^4

FV=$2,601.51

After that $5000 was added to $2,601.51 making $7,601.51 which was reinvested to yield the below:

FV=$7,601.51*(1+ in 4%/4)^1*4

FV=$7,601.51*(1+1%)^4

FV=$7910.16

Then $7,500  was added to $7,910.16 which turns $15,410.16

FV=$15,410.16*(1+4%/4)^1*4

FV=$15,410.16*(1+1%)^4

FV=$16,035.87

4 0
3 years ago
The deadweight loss associated with output less than the competitive level can be determined by A. subtracting the consumer surp
SSSSS [86.1K]

Answer:

C. subtracting the competitive level producer surplus from the producer surplus associated with less output

Explanation:

A deadweight loss refers to a cost to society created as a result of market inefficiency. Market inefficiency occurs when supply and demand are out of equilibrium. It is also known as excess burden.

Deadweight loss is also created due to taxes as they prevent people from purchasing things that they would otherwise as the final price of the product increases.

The deadweight loss associated with output less than the competitive level can be determined by subtracting the competitive level producer surplus from the producer surplus associated with less output

7 0
2 years ago
If oligopolists engaged in some sort of collusion, industry output would be _____ and price would be _____ than under perfect co
TEA [102]

Answer:

If oligopolists engaged in some sort of collusion, industry output would be smaller_____ and price would be _higher____ than under perfect competition.

8 0
3 years ago
A company has decided to discontinue a component of its business but, when the reporting period ends, the component has not yet
azamat

Answer: income from operations for the year and the amount by which the component’s fair value less cost to sell is less than book value

Explanation:

Discontinued operations is simply and accounting term which means the parts of the core business of a company that have either been shut down or divested.

With regards to the question, the amount that the company would report as income from discontinued operations would be the income or loss that was gotten from operations, that is revenues, the expenses, gains and the losses and the impairment loss.

Therefore, the correct answer will be option B "Income from operations for the year and the amount by which the components fair value less cost to sell is less than the book value".

5 0
2 years ago
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