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3 years ago

Does managing your money well mean you cannot have fun with your money

1 answer:

4 0

Managing your money well does not mean you can not have fun with your money. Managing your money well means making careful plans for your spending. It involves deciding ahead of time what you will use your money for and what you will not attempt spending your money on. Doing this gives you an effective hold on your finances and helps you to save money instead of spending it impulsively on things that are not your needs.
You can have fun with your money by spending it on things that you enjoy, but deciding ahead of time the exact amount you are ready to spend on those things will makes a better money manager.<span />

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______ is the process of dividing a market into distinct groups of buyers who have different needs, characteristics, or behavior

dimulka [17.4K]

Answer:

Market segmentation

Explanation:

Market segmentation is the process of dividing a market into distinct groups of buyers who have different needs, characteristics, or behavior.

The businesses use market segmentation to separate each market from another to study their demand closely. It helps them in catering to them according to their characteristics. They are able to treat every market according to its unique characteristics and generate more profit while doing that.

7 0

3 years ago

Store A uses the newsvendor model to manage its inventory. Demand for its product is normally distributed with a mean of 500 and

Llana [10]

Answer:

maximum profit = $7500

so correct option is c $7500

Explanation:

given data

mean = 500

standard deviation = 300

cost = $10

price = $25

Inventory salvaged = $5

to find out

What is its maximum profit

solution

we get here maximum profit that is express as

maximum profit = mean × ( price - cost ) ..................................1

put here value in equation 1 we get maximum profit

maximum profit = mean × ( price - cost )

maximum profit = 500 × ( $25 - $10 )

maximum profit = 500 × $15

maximum profit = $7500

so correct option is c $7500

4 0

3 years ago

Scoresby Inc. tracks the number of units purchased and sold throughout each year but applies its inventory costing method at the

Talja [164]

Answer:

Transactions Units Unit Cost Total Cost

a. Inventory, Beginning 4,000 $ 20 80,000

b. Purchase, March 5 10,000 21 210,000

c. Purchase, September 19 6,000 23 138,000

d. Sale, April 15 4,500 65 292500

e. Sale, October 31 9,000 68 612000

f. Operating expenses $615,000

Ending Inventory Units 6,500

Cost of Good Available for Sale = 80,000+ 210,000+ 138,000= $428,000

The number of units in ending inventory = Beginning + Purchases - Sales

=4000+ 10,000+ 6000- 4,500- 9,000

= 6500

FIFO cost of ending inventory $ 148500

6,000 units at $ 23 =$138,000

500 units at $ 21= $ 10500

FIFO cost of goods sold = Sales - FIFO Ending Inventory

= $ 904500- $ 148500= $ 756000

LIFO cost of ending inventory $ 132500

4,000 units at $ 20 =$80,000

2500 units at $ 21= $ 52500

LIFO cost of goods sold = Sales - LIFO Ending Inventory

= $ 904500- $ 132500= $ 772000

Weighted cost of ending inventory = ($428,000/20,000)*6500= $ 139100

Weighted cost of goods sold = Sales - Weighted Ending Inventory

=$ 904500-$ 139100= $765400

Scoresby Inc. tracks

Income Statement

FIFO LIFO Weighted Method

Sales $ 904500 $ 904500 $ 904500

Cost OF Good $756000 $ 772000 $765400

Sold

Gross Profit $ 148500 $ 132500 $ 139100

Less

<u>Operating expenses $615,000 $615,000 $615,000 </u>

Net Loss (466,500) (482,500) (475,900)

4.LIFO minimizes taxes as it gives the lowest gross profit assigning the oldest values to ending inventory.

4 0

4 years ago

Select the correct answers.

telo118 [61]

Answer:

I think

hand-eye coordination and

customer service

8 0

3 years ago

Read 2 more answers

wants to have a weighted average cost of capital of 9.0 percent. The firm has an after-tax cost of debt of 6.0 percent and a cos

kogti [31]

Answer:

33.33%

Explanation:

WACC can be calculated using the following formula:

WACC = Ke * (E/V) + Kd(1-T) * (D/V)

Here

V = Market Value of Equity + Market Value of Debt

Or simple we can write it as:

V = E + D

kd(1-T) is after tax cost of debt which is given in the question and is 6%.

Ke = 9% cost of equity

WACC = 9%

So by putting values we have:

9% = 11% * (E/V) + 6% * (D/V)

Which means:

0.09 = 0.11(E/V) + 0.06(D/V)

By multiplying by (V/E), we have:

0.09(V/E) = 0.11 + 0.06(D/E)

As we know that the V/E is just the equity multiplier, which is equal to:

V/E = 1 + D/E

So by putting value we have:

0.09(D/E + 1) = 0.11 + 0.06(D/E)

Now, we can solve for D/E as:

0.09(D/E) + 0.09 = 0.11 + 0.06(D/E)

0.09(D/E) - 0.06(D/E) = 0.11 - 0.09

0.03(D/E) = 0.03

(D/E) = 0.02 / 0.03 = 33.33%

4 0

3 years ago