Answer:
If 1 pint is equal to 2 cups, then 5 pints would equal _<u>5</u>_ cups.
Step-by-step explanation:
Let's use a ratio to solve:
pints : cups
1 : 2
2 : 4
3 : 6
4 : 8
5 : 10
There would be 10 cups in 5 pints.
Answer:
see explanation
Step-by-step explanation:
Given
4
- 5a² + 1 = 0
Use the substitution u = a², then equation is
4u² - 5u + 1 = 0
Consider the product of the coefficient of the u² term and the constant term
product = 4 × 1 = 4 and sum = - 5
The factors are - 4 and - 1
Use these factors to split the u- term
4u² - 4u - u + 1 = 0 ( factor the first/second and third/fourth terms )
4u(u - 1) - 1(u - 1) = 0 ← factor out (u - 1) from each term
(u - 1)(4u - 1) = 0
Equate each factor to zero and solve for u
u - 1 = 0 ⇒ u = 1
4u - 1 = 0 ⇒ 4u = 1 ⇒ u = 
Convert u back into terms of a, that is
a² = 1 ⇒ a = ± 1
a² =
⇒ a = ± 
Solutions are a = ± 1 , a = ± 
-6p^3(3p^2 +5p -1) = -18p^5 -30p^4 +6p^3
so this is the right answer sure
The answer is 6x + 0.50x= 2.50
The table have the following results:
Hearts – 7
Diamonds – 4
Clubs – 8
Spades – 5
There is a total of 24
The question is asking for the probability of not
selecting a heart.
So we need to add the probabilities of the diamonds,
clubs, and spades since these suits are different from hearts.
So = 4 + 8 + 5 = 17
And we have a total of 24 cards
<span>Therefore the probability is 17/24. </span>