Hi there!
The answer is A) A lack of labor mobility as people choose to remain in their hometown.
Unemployment is a complex issue, here are the reasons why the other options increase unemployment:
-Reduction in Union bargaining activities would increase unemployment because employers wouldn't have as many restrictions to reduce their workforce.
-Reduction in economic activity due to a recession would increase unemployment as the demand for products, and for workers too, will decrease.
-The existence of efficiency wages causes unemployment because the demand for labor will decrease, as employees get more and more efficient.
<span>A lack of labor mobility as people choose to remain in their hometown will not contribute to a higher level of unemployment. Instead, labor mobility can increase unemployment because there would be an oversupply of labor in a specific region. </span>
Answer:
$1.3794
Explanation:
The computation of the projected dividend for the coming year is shown below:
Last year dividend paid = Do
Expected Dividend in Year 1 (D1) = Do ( 1+g) = Do × 1.32
Dividend in Year 2 (D2) = Do ( 1+g)^2 = Do × 1.32^2
Dividend in Year 3 (D3) = Do ( 1+g)^3 = Do × 1.32^3
Dividend in year 4 , (D4) = D3 × (1+g) = Do × 1.32^3 × 1.22
Now the price at year 4 is
P4 = D4 × (1+g) ÷ ( R-g )
= Do × 1.32^3 × 1.22 × (1 + 0.07 ) ÷ ( 0.10 - 0.07 )
= Do × 100.08
Use Gordon Growth Model
The Current Price of Stock is
= D1 ÷ ( 1+ R)^1 +D2 ÷ ( 1+ R)^2 + D3 ÷ ( 1+ R)^3 + D4 ÷ ( 1+ R)^4 + P4 ÷ ( 1+ R)^4
$78 = Do ( 1.32 ÷ 1.1 + 1.32^2 ÷ 1.1 ^2 + 1.32^3 ÷ 1.1^3 +1.32^3 × 1.22 ÷ 1.1^4 + 100 .08 ÷ 1.1^4)
$78 = Do ( 1.2 +1.44 + 1.728 + 1.9165 + 68.36 )
Do = $1.045
Now
Projected Dividend for Year 1 is
= Do × 1.32
= $1.045 × 1.32
= $1.3794
The correct answer is choice b - the percentage of receivables basis.
When an accountant is calculating the bad debts expense they will take into account the balance in the Allowance for Doubtful Account when they are calculating on the percentage of sales basis.
Answer:
d)$1,100 long-term capital gain
Explanation:
Given the information from the question. We know that a long-term capital gain or loss comes from investment that was possessed for a year or longer. However in this case, since the necklace was a gift .Therefore, there were no capital gain in 2014. In 2016, Lindsey sold the necklace for $1200. Therefore, the capital gain on the necklace will calculated as $1200- $100 = $1100. Where the $100 is a cost purchase for the previous owner. Therefore, long-term capital gain is $1100 which is option D.
Just think here itll come to you eventually
<span />
