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algol13
3 years ago
10

Teresa purchased a necklace for $100 in 1964. In 2014, Teresa gave the necklace to her granddaughter, Lindsey.

Business
1 answer:
padilas [110]3 years ago
8 0

Answer:

d)$1,100 long-term capital gain

Explanation:

Given the information from the question. We know that a long-term capital gain or loss comes from investment that was possessed for a year or longer. However in this case, since the necklace was a gift .Therefore, there were no capital gain in 2014. In 2016, Lindsey sold the necklace for $1200. Therefore, the capital gain on the necklace will calculated as $1200- $100 = $1100. Where the $100 is a cost purchase for the previous owner. Therefore, long-term capital gain is $1100 which is option D.

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The LFH Corporation makes and sells a single product, Product T. Each unit of Product T requires 1.5 direct labor-hours at a rat
insens350 [35]

Answer:

the budgeted direct labor cost is $441,000

Explanation:

The computation of the budgeted direct labor cost is shown below:

Budgeted direct labor cost

= Budgeted production ×  hours per unit × rate per hour

= 28,000 units × 1.5 × $10.50

= $441,000

Hence, the budgeted direct labor cost is $441,000

So the correct option is B.

7 0
3 years ago
For the year ended December 31, a company has revenues of $332,000 and expenses of $203,500. The company paid $56,000 in dividen
Orlov [11]
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3 0
3 years ago
The manager can invest in an additional project that would require $40,000 investment in additional assets and would generate $6
Makovka662 [10]

Answer:

d. If the manager invests in the additional project, residual income of the division will increase.

Explanation:

RI = Operating Income - (Operating Assets x Minimum Required Rate of Return)

with adding the additional project

Operating Income: $60000 +6000 =$66000

Operating Assets: $375000+$40000 =$415000

Residual income =$66000-14%*$415000 =$7900

Consider the attached information.

7 0
4 years ago
Allen Construction purchased a crane 6 years ago for $130,000. They need a crane of this capacity for the next 5 years. Normal o
Korvikt [17]

Answer:

<u>For retaining of Old Machine Equipment</u>

Price of old equipment 3 yrs ago = $130,000

O & M cost per year = $35,000

Using the Cash flow approach

End of year   Cash flow 1   Old equipment

0                            $0            Initial Cash flow

1                         -$35,000     O & M cost per year

2                        -$35,000     O & M cost per year

3                        -$35,000     O & M cost per year

4                        -$35,000     O & M cost per year

5                        -$35,000     O & M cost per year

Hence, Annual worth = Initial cash flow + Annual cost

Annual worth = 0 - $35,000

Annual worth = -$35,000

<u>For buying of new equipment</u>

Cost of buying new crane = $150,000

Market value of old crane = $40,000

Time = 5 years

O & M cost per year = $8,000

Salvage value = $55,000

MARR = 20%

Using the Cash flow approach

End of year   Cash flow 1   New equipment

0                         $110,000    -$150,000 + $40,000

1                         -$8,000     O & M cost per year

2                        -$8,000     O & M cost per year

3                        -$8,000     O & M cost per year

4                        -$8,000     O & M cost per year

5                        $47,000     -$8,000 + $55,000

Annual worth = Initial cash flow + Annual cost + Salvage value

Annual worth = -$110,000(A/P 20%,5) - $8,000 + $55,000(A/P 20%,5)

Annual worth = -$110,000*(0.334) - $8,000 + $55,000*(0.134)

Annual worth = -$36,781.77 - $8,000 + $7,390.88

Annual worth = -$37,908.88

Conclusion: We should retain the old machine as it is more favorable than purchase of new equipment

5 0
3 years ago
The following is a partially completed lower section of a departmental expense allocation spreadsheet for Brickland. It reports
blagie [28]

Answer:

The correct option is b. $8,100

Explanation:

Since the question was asked about the allocation of maintenance department expense to assembly and the maintenance department expense is based on the square footage.

So, the following equation should be used which is shown below:

= Maintenance department expense × assembly square foot space ÷ total sum of square foot space

where,

Maintenance department expense is $18,000

Assembly square footage is 2,700

And, the total sum of square foot space equals to

=  Fabrication square foot space + assembly square foot space

= 3,300 + 2,700

= 6,000

Now, put these values on the above equation.

So, the value would be equals to

= $18,000 × 2,700 ÷ 6,000

= $18,000 × 0.45

= $8,100

The other cost is irrelevant. Thus, it is ignored while computation.

Hence, the amount of Maintenance department expense to be allocated to Assembly is $8,100

Therefore, the correct option is b. $8,100

7 0
4 years ago
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