<span>Hi there,
100% - 15% = 85%
85% = 85/100 = 0.85
This is your factor of depreciation
The power it is raised to equals the years
20,000 x 0.85^3
= <span>12282.5
</span>
I hope my answer has come to your help. Thank you for posting your question here in Brainly.
</span>
Answer:
(a) If the discount rate is 11 percent, what is the future value of these cash flows in year 4?
To solve this problem, we must find the FV of each cash flow and add them.
To find the FV of a lump sum, we use:
FV = PV(1 + r)^t
[email protected]% = $625(1.11)^3 + $875(1.11)^2+ $1,150(1.11) + $1,250 = $4459
(b) What is the future value at a discount rate of 18 percent?
FV = PV(1 + r)^t
[email protected]% = $625(1.18)^3+ $875(1.18)^2+ $1,150(1.18) + $1,250 = $4852
(c) What is the future value at discount rate of 30 percent?
FV = PV(1 + r)^t
[email protected]% = $625(1.30)^3+ $875(1.30)^2+ $1,150(1.30) + $1,250 = $5597
An unfavorable materials quantity variance indicates that the actual usage of materials exceeds the standard material allowed for output.
<h3>What do you mean by material quantity variance?</h3>
The material quantity variance refers to the difference between the standard amount and the actual amount of materials used in the production process.
The material quantity variance yield unusual results as it is based on a standard unit quantity that is not even close to the actual usage.
Therefore, an unfavorable materials quantity variance indicates that the actual usage of materials exceeds the standard material allowed for output.
Learn more about Material Quantity variance here:
brainly.com/question/15082996
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Answer:
Arbitrage opportunity may exists as the ZCBs selling at different price at same time due to change in their YTM .
The PV of 100 face value zcb with different ytm are different , in this case.
for one year maturity with face value 100 current price = fv/ pv at 8% = 92.59
for Two year maturity with face value 100 current price = fv / Pv at 9% for two years = 84.167 , if the bond holder sell the bond after 1 year only, the price = 91.74 .
a) The arbitrage opportunity exist with buy two bond with face value 100 with maturity of 1 year and face value 110 with maturity of 2 years.
b) profit 0.01 , as difference between PV of both bond at their YTM rate.
Answer: $20,000
Explanation:
Net Income is the amount from revenue that the company made over expenses. It is therefore;
= Revenue - Expenses
= 110,000 - 90,000
= $20,000
<em>Note: Dividends are not considered in the calculation of Net Income as they are not expenses. </em>