Answer:
<em><1 = <5 ( because it is a corresponding angle and corresponding angles are always </em><em> </em> <em>equal</em><em> </em><em>)</em>
<em>hope</em><em> </em><em>this</em><em> </em><em>answer</em><em> </em><em>will</em><em> </em><em>help</em><em> </em><em>you</em><em> </em>
<em>have</em><em> </em><em>a</em><em> </em><em>great</em><em> </em><em>time</em><em> </em>
Answer:
the probability of no defects in 10 feet of steel = 0.1353
Step-by-step explanation:
GIven that:
A roll of steel is manufactured on a processing line. The anticipated number of defects in a 10-foot segment of this roll is two.
Let consider β to be the average value for defecting
So;
β = 2
Assuming Y to be the random variable which signifies the anticipated number of defects in a 10-foot segment of this roll.
Thus, y follows a poisson distribution as number of defect is infinite with the average value of β = 2
i.e
the probability mass function can be represented as follows:
where;
y = 0,1,2,3 ...
Hence, the probability of no defects in 10 feet of steel
y = 0
P(y =0) = 0.1353
Two fractions equivalent to each: Just divide or multiply both top AND bottom by the same number.<span>
5/6: 10/12 OR 15/18
15/30: 5/10 OR 1/2
45/60: 8/12 OR 4/6
Rewrite each pair or fractions with common denominator: Find the difference between the two bottom numbers, and multiply top and bottom number.
5/8 and 3/4: 4X2=8, 3X2=6. So, 5/8 and 6/8.
2/5 and 1/2: 2/5 and 2.5/5
9/9 and 5/7: 9/9 and ~5.7/9
Rewrite each in simple form: Find greatest common factor and divide.
9/54: 1/6
20/40: 1/2
100/110: 10/11
Are these fractions equivalent?
No. 5/1 and 5/5 are, because they are both 5 wholes. 1/5 is not because it is a fifth of a whole.
In what situation can you use multiplication to find equivalent fractions?
I'm sorry but I do not understand this question.
</span>Source(s):<span>I hope I helped, seeing as I have graduated with a math degree.</span>
