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Delicious77 [7]

3 years ago

11

How to convert 302 inches to yards

1 answer:

Alona [7]3 years ago

6 0

To convert inches to yards, you must convert inches to feet first. So we know that there are 12 inches in 1 foot. This means you can divide 302 by 12 to get 25 feet and 2 inches. (If you use a calculator you get 25.16666 repeating, but since you know that 1/6 = 0.166666, you can tell that 2/12 = 1/6.) Then since you know that there are 3 feet in a yard, you can divide 25 feet by 3 and get 8 yards, 1 foot, and 2 inches, but since this isn't fully in yards, now you can use fractions to make it fully in yards. So we know 1 foot is 1/3 of a yard, as 3 feet is 1 yard. Therefore we have 8 1/3 yards and 2 inches. So we know that 2 inches is 1/6 of one foot, which means it is 1/18 of a yard. Now we add 1/3 and 1/18 to get 7/18. So your answer would be 8 7/18 yards. Hope this helps! :D. Let me know if you have any questions regarding my explanation, and feel free to post more questions.

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Please help with my next question in math.

Vesnalui [34]

The answer is D. 2n + 1

8 0

3 years ago

) The manager of a local Gap store estimates that on average the probability of a customer entering the store and will purchase

xeze [42]

Answer: 1. 0.0256

2. 0.4096

Step-by-step explanation:

Binomial probability formula , to find the probability of getting x successes:

$P(x)=^nC_xp^x(1-p)^{n-x}$ , where n= Total number of trials

p= Probability of getting success in each trial.

Let x be the number of customers will make purchase.

As per given , we have

p= 0.20

n= 4

1. The probability that 3 of the next 4 customers will make a purchase will be:-

$P(x=3)=^4C_3(0.20)^3(1-0.20)^{4-3}$

$P(x=3)=(4)(0.20)^3(0.80)^{1}\ \ [\because\ ^nC_{n-1}=n]$

$P(x=3)=(4)(0.008)(0.80)=0.0256$

Hence, the probability that 3 of the next 4 customers will make a purchase = 0.0256

2. The probability that none of the next 4 customers will make a purchase will be :

$P(x=0)=^4C_0(0.20)^0(1-0.20)^{4-0}$

$P(x=0)=(1)(0.80)^{4}\ \ [\because\ ^nC_{0}=1]$

$P(x=0)=0.4096$

Hence, the probability that none of the next 4 customers will make a purchase= 0.4096

5 0

3 years ago

Anyone know this problem???

sammy [17]

Answer:

2

Step-by-step explanation:

$\frac{28}{11}$ = 2.54545454.....

The repeating digits are 54 ← group of 2

4 0

3 years ago

Read 2 more answers

Point P is the center of dilation. Triangle S T U is dilated to create triangle S prime T prime U prime. The length of P T is 2.

Stels [109]

Answer:

A and D

Step-by-step explanation:

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6 0

3 years ago

Read 2 more answers

if PQ || RS and the slope of PQ= x-1/4 and the slope of RS is 3/8 then find the value of x justify algebraically and numerically

Artemon [7]

The value of x is 5/8.

<u>Step-by-step explanation</u>:

Given,

The lines PQ and RS are parallel to each other.
slope of PQ= x-1/4
slope of RS = 3/8

The slopes of parallel lines are equal.

slope of PQ = slope of RS

⇒ x-1/4 = 3/8

⇒ (4x-1)/4 = 3/8

⇒ 8(4x-1) = 4(3)

⇒ 32x-8 = 12

⇒ 32x = 20

x = 20/32

x = 5/8

5 0

3 years ago