2+2-1 that's three quick maths.
1000 candy bars ... $350
1 candy bar ... $x = ?
If you would like to know what is the unit cost per candy bar, you can calculate this using the following steps:
1000 * x = 350 * 1
1000 * x = 350 /1000
x = 350 / 1000
x = $0.35
Result: She can buy 1 candy bar for $0.35, so the correct result would be B) $.35.
Every even number is 2 away from the last.
0, 2, 4, 6, 8, 10, 12, 14...etc.
If we had an even number p, then the next three even numbers would be
p+2, p+4, and p+6.
<em>(If we had an odd number p, then the next three even numbers would be</em>
<em>p+1, p+3, and p+5. I'm not sure if p is even is implied in the question. Technically the answer would be p - p mod 2 + 2, where p is an interger...that gets into more technical function stuff, though.)</em>
Answer:
the probability of no defects in 10 feet of steel = 0.1353
Step-by-step explanation:
GIven that:
A roll of steel is manufactured on a processing line. The anticipated number of defects in a 10-foot segment of this roll is two.
Let consider β to be the average value for defecting
So;
β = 2
Assuming Y to be the random variable which signifies the anticipated number of defects in a 10-foot segment of this roll.
Thus, y follows a poisson distribution as number of defect is infinite with the average value of β = 2
i.e

the probability mass function can be represented as follows:

where;
y = 0,1,2,3 ...
Hence, the probability of no defects in 10 feet of steel
y = 0


P(y =0) = 0.1353
The percentage of votes for candidate B Is 30%