Answer:
correct option is a $0
Explanation:
given data
Acquisition value = $52,000,000
Fair value assets = $48,000,000
to find out
What is the annual amortization of goodwill for this acquisition
solution
we know that annual amortization of goodwill on a straight line basis over 40 years before 2001
and FASB also issue statement about that it does not allow automatic amortization of goodwill
so it will be zero here as goodwill is not amortized here
so correct option is correct option is a $0
Warranty expense is the value associated with a faulty product repair, replacement, or refund. A warranty comes with a warranty duration in the course of which the seller or manufacturer of the good is in charge for any defects that can also appear all through the use of the product.
<h3 /><h3>Is warranty an amassed expense?</h3>
Expense Warranty (Accrual) approach – if the assurance is inseparable from the product being sold and guarantee charges are probably and can be fairly estimated, accrue these prices as a liability in the 12 months of sale.
<h3>When Should assurance fee be recorded?</h3>
Therefore, a corporation should report in the duration of the sale the estimated fee of repairing or changing the product at some point of the guarantee period. That expected price is recorded as a liability on its stability sheet and as an fee on its profits statement.
Learn more about warranty expense here:
<h3>
brainly.com/question/14070965</h3><h3 /><h3>#SPJ4</h3>
Answer:
Engineering Enterprises P.C.
At the end of the month, Cash would equal:
C) $43,000.
Explanation:
a) Data and Calculations:
Cash Account:
Lori investment in Engineering Enterprises P.C. = $30,000
Payment of salaries to the receptionist = (1,000)
Cash received from a customer on account = 6,000
Cash borrowed from the bank = 8,000
At the end of the month, Cash would equal $43,000
b) The cash balance at the end of the month is made up of the investment by Lori for common stock in Engineering Enterprises P.C. and the cash received respectively from a customer and the bank, minus the cash payment made to the receptionist as salaries.
Coupon payments... That's your answer!
Answer:
Option B has a higher present value at time zero is correct
as shown below:
Option A future value at the end of three years = 2000*(1.06)^2+5000*(1.06)^1+5000*(1.06)^0= $12,547
Option B future value at the end of three years = 4000*(1.06)^2+4000*(1.06)^1+4000*(1.06)^0=$12,734
Option B has higher future value as determined above, so first option is wrong.
Option A present value at time zero = 2000/(1.06)^1+5000/(1.06)^2+5000/(1.06)^3= $10,535
Option B present value at time zero = 4000/(1.06)^1+4000/(1.06)^2+4000/(1.06)^3=$10,692
Option B has higher present value as determined above, so second option is correct.
Third option is wrong as Option B is not perpetuity as B has three years life.
Fourth option is wrong as Option A is not ANNUITY as A CASH FLOW amounts is not equal , it varies on annual basis.