Answer:
a) 2,350,000,000
b) 25,000,000
c) B
Step-by-step explanation:
a) 2350 X 1,000,000 = 2,350,000,000
b) 25 X 10^6 = 25,000,000
c) sqrt(90000) =300
The last one
Hope this helps
For 1 play, the chance of gaining $8 is 4/38, while the chance of losing the $1 is 34/38. Therefore, the expected value is ($8)(4/38) + ($-1)(34/38) = $(-1/19). Over 50 plays, which are mutually independent of each other, we multiply the number of plays by the expected value to get $(-50/19) = $-2.63.
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Answer:
I got u homie wassup with you
Maybe 3(6x+15)
not sure what you're looking for
