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FinnZ [79.3K]
3 years ago
12

For​ 2018, Franklin Manufacturing uses machineminushours as the only overhead costminusallocation base. The estimated manufactur

ing overhead costs are $ 340,000 and estimated machine hours are 40,000. The actual manufacturing overhead costs are $ 450,000 and actual machine hours are 50,000. What is the difference between the budgeted and the actual manufacturing overhead using job​ costing? (Round interim and the final answer to the nearest​ cent.)
Business
1 answer:
mina [271]3 years ago
7 0

Answer:

Over/under allocation= $25,000 underallocated

Explanation:

Giving the following information:

Franklin Manufacturing uses machine-hours as the only overhead cost-allocation base.

The estimated manufacturing overhead costs are $ 340,000 and the estimated machine hours are 40,000. The actual manufacturing overhead costs are $ 450,000 and actual machine hours are 50,000.

First, we need to determine the MOH rate:

Estimated manufacturing overhead rate= total estimated overhead costs for the period/ total amount of allocation base= 340000/40000= $8.5 per machine hour

Now, we can calculate the allocated MOH:

Allocated MOH= Estimated manufacturing overhead rate* Actual amount of allocation base= 8.5* 50000= $425,000

Over/under allocation= real MOH - allocated MOH= 450,000 - 425,000= 25000 underallocated

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On January 1, 2021, Essence Communications issued $800,000 of its 10-year, 8% bonds for $700,302. The bonds were priced to yield
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Answer:

A)

before decrease in rates: 706,483

   after rate decrease:            751,360

B)

interest expense 35,015.12

discount on BP 3,015.12

cash 32,000

--bonds first interest payment--

C)

interest expense 35,165.87

discount on BP       3,165.87

cash              32,000

--second interest payment--

D)

unrealized loss 44,877

  discount on bonds payable  44,877

--to adjust bonds valuation--

Explanation:

First, we solve for the present value of the bond to get the proceeds from the issuance.

C \times \frac{1-(1+r)^{-time} }{rate} = PV\\

C 32,000

time 20

rate 0.05

32000 \times \frac{1-(1+0.05)^{-20} }{0.05} = PV\\

PV $398,790.7310

\frac{Maturity}{(1 + rate)^{time} } = PV  

Maturity   800,000.00

time   20.00

rate  0.05

\frac{800000}{(1 + 0.05)^{20} } = PV  

PV   301,511.59

PV c $398,790.7310

PV m  $301,511.5863

Total $700,302.3173

Now, we do the table for the first year:

# / Principal/      paid /    interest /       Amort/End. P

1 700,302 32000 35015.12 3015.12 703,317

2 703,317 32000 35165.87 3165.87 706,483

Now, we have to redo the calculations for the bonds market value considering a decrease in the market rate to 9%

C \times \frac{1-(1+r)^{-time} }{rate} = PV\\

C 32,000

time 18

rate 0.045

32000 \times \frac{1-(1+0.045)^{-18} }{0.045} = PV\\

PV $389,119.7377

\frac{Maturity}{(1 + rate)^{time} } = PV  

Maturity   800,000.00

time   18.00

rate  0.045

\frac{800000}{(1 + 0.045)^{18} } = PV  

PV   362,240.30

PV c $389,119.7377

PV m  $362,240.2951

Total $751,360.0328

We adjust for: 751,360 - 706,483 = 44,877

This will be an unrealized loss as the liability increases but, will be realized on the redemption of the bonds or at the end of the bonds' life.

3 0
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