SOLUTION
This is a binomial probability. For i, we will apply the Binomial probability formula
i. Exactly 2 are defective
Using the formula, we have

Note that I made the probability of being defective as the probability of success = p
and probability of none defective as probability of failure = q
Exactly 2 are defective becomes the binomial probability

Hence the answer is 0.1157
(ii) None is defective becomes

hence the answer is 0.4823
(iii) All are defective

(iv) At least one is defective
This is 1 - probability that none is defective

Hence the answer is 0.5177
Answer:
no it's an acute triangle
Step-by-step explanation:
why? because any angle below 90 degrees is considered an acute triangle which in your case 20,24, and 36 are all very far from being a right triangle
Answer:
-9 1/4
Step-by-step explanation:
-5 3/4 - 3 1/2
-5 3/4 - 3 2/4
-9 1/4
Ninth term is 2.5
you are adding 0.5 each time
-1,-0.5,0,0.5,1,1.5,2,2.5