9514 1404 393
Answer:
₹14000
Step-by-step explanation:
Let c represent the cost price, and m represent the marked price.
c × (1 +40%) = m
m × (1 -15%) - c = ₹1900
Using the first expression for m, the second equation becomes ...
1.40c×0.85 -c = ₹1900
0.19c = ₹1900
c = ₹1900/0.19 = ₹10000
Then the marked price was ...
m = 1.40c = 1.40×₹10000 = ₹14000
The marked price was ₹14000.
_____
The selling price was ₹11900.
Answer:
π
2
,
3
⋅
π
2
,
3
⋅
π
4
,
7
⋅
π
4
Explanation:
Factorizing your equation we get
cot
(
x
)
=
0
so
cos
(
x
)
=
0
we get the following Solutions in the given interval
x
=
π
72
or
x
=
3
π
2
for the second case we get
cot
(
x
)
=
−
1
so
cos
(
x
)
=
−
sin
(
x
)
and we get
x
=
3
π
4
or
x
=
7
π
4
Hint:
To get the Solutions of the last equation you can use
√
sin
(
x
+
π
4
)
=
0
Step-by-step explanation:
Two over four because you just multiply by two2/4
We know that
if a <span>dilation produces a smaller figure
then
0< scale factor <1
so
case A) -2------> the scale factor must be a positive number
case B) 1/3----> 0< 1/3 <1---> i</span><span>s a possible scale factor
case C) 1------> this scale factor does not not produce a smaller figure, </span><span>it produces the same figure
case D) 4----> this scale factor produces a larger figure
the answer is
1/3</span>
Answer:
Step-by-step explanation:
the sum and product of two rational number
