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dexar [7]
4 years ago
8

What is the value of (3 x 10-2)​

Mathematics
1 answer:
Andru [333]4 years ago
4 0

Answer:

28

Step-by-step explanation:

first Multiply 3*10

where you wil get 30

then,

subtract 2 from 30

where as :

30-2 =28

Fianl answer is 28

You might be interested in
Write the following in expanded form then in word form . number 355,645​
valkas [14]

Answer:

300000+50000+5000+600+40+5

word form:- three lakh fifty five thousand six hundred forty five.

3 0
3 years ago
T/3+9=12 what does this mean in algerba
Mekhanik [1.2K]

Answer:

t=9

Step-by-step explanation:

subtract 9 from both sides

t/3=3

t=9

7 0
3 years ago
Help please!! Thank you!! :)
Naddik [55]

Answer:

  A.  m^2+7m+10=0

Step-by-step explanation:

This is a problem in pattern matching, and in substituting a variable for a pattern.

  (x^2+3)^2 +7x^2 +21 = -10 . . . . . . given

  (x^2 +3)^2 +7(x^2 +3) = -10 . . . . . factor the last two terms

  m^2 +7m = -10 . . . . . . . . . . . . subsitute m for x^2 +3

  m^2 +7m +10 = 0 . . . . . . . . add 10 to both sides; matches A

5 0
2 years ago
The time to fly between New York City and Chicago is uniformly distributed with a minimum of 120 minutes and a maximum of 150 mi
lara [203]

Answer:

a) 33.33%)

b) 135 minutes

c) 8.66 min

d) 50%

Step-by-step explanation:

a) the probability for a uniform distribution is

P(b<X<a) = (a-b)/(c-d) , where c and d are the maximum and minimum values

therefore the probability that the flight is more than 140 minutes ( and less than 150 since it is the maximum value)

P(140<X<150) = (a-b)/(c-d) = (150-140)/(150-120) = 10/30 = 1/3 (33.33%)

b) the mean (expected value) for a uniform probability distribution is

E(X) = (c+d)/2 = (120+150)/2 = 135 minutes

c)  the standard deviation for a uniform probability distribution is

σ²(X)= (c-d)²/12 = (150-120)²/12 = 75 min²

σ = √75 min² = 8.66 min

b) following the same procedure as in a)

P(120<X<135) = (a-b)/(c-d) = (135-120)/(150-120) = 15/30 = 1/2 (50%)

4 0
3 years ago
A man sold a fan for Rs. 400. Find the cost price if he incurred a loss of 15%.
statuscvo [17]

Answer:

Cost price of the fan is \text {Rs. 470.59}.

Step-by-step explanation:

Given: A man sold a fan for  \text{Rs.}\:400. He incurred a loss of 15\%.

To find: The cost price of the fan

Solution:

We have,

Selling price, S.P.,  of the fan = \text{Rs.} 400

Loss =15\%

We know that \text {Loss\%}=\frac{\text{C.P.-S.P.}}{\text{C.P.}}\times100\%

Now let the C.P. of the fan be \text{Rs.} \:x

So, 15=(\frac{x-400}{x})\times 100

\implies 15x=100x-40000

\implies 100x-15x=40000

\implies 85x=40000

\implies x=\frac{40000}{85}

\implies x= 470.59

Hence, the cost price of the fan is \text {Rs. 470.59}.

7 0
3 years ago
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