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tiny-mole [99]
3 years ago
15

2. What is the sample proportion of heads in your sample of 40? Report this value to your teacher.

Mathematics
1 answer:
Alexeev081 [22]3 years ago
6 0

Answer:

\frac{18}{40}=0.45

Though it may vary, it's going closer to 0.5 as long as we enlarge our sample.

Step-by-step explanation:

1) Since a coin has heads and tails, then a sample proportion of 40 we can simulate it using some applets.

2) Here are the most common outcomes, as long as we continue on flipping coins.

\frac{18}{40}=0.45

If we continue enlarging our sample (80, 120,160...) the probability goes closer to 0.5

This shows: the theoretical probability goes closer and closer to the experimental probability of heads and tails

S_{80}=0.503\\S_{120}=0.50

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Read 2 more answers
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15z+13

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123 miles 2 hours

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3 years ago
Are 16:14 and 64:60 equivalent? Explain ???
zzz [600]
If a:b=c:d then a/b=c/d and ad=bc

so

if 16:14=64:60 then 16/14=64/60 and (16)(60)=(14)(64)
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not equivilent
8 0
3 years ago
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