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Paraphin [41]
3 years ago
14

*20 POINTS PLEASE HELP ME!!!!!!!!*

Mathematics
1 answer:
egoroff_w [7]3 years ago
5 0

Answer:

helloooooooooooooooooooo

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Brainliest + Points!<br><br> Please explain !
Morgarella [4.7K]

Answer:

A) -2/5

Step-by-step explanation:

Note that for a slope, the slope of the line is found by using the equation:

slope = (rise/run).

In this case, find two points. For example, i will use:

(0, 2) & (5, 0). (x = 0, y = 2) ; (x = 5, y = 0)

Note that "rise" = y, and "run" = x. Plug in the corresponding numbers for the corresponding points.

(2 - 0)/(0 - 5) = slope

Simplify

(2)/(-5) = slope

-(2/5) is your answer.

Note that it does not matter where the negative sign is placed.

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6 0
4 years ago
A study of traffic patterns in a large city shows that if the weather is rainy, there is a 50% probability of an automobile acci
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Based on the data given, I would presume that the data will be 75 percent in the chance of also having an accident.
However, data is still insufficient. Thank you for your question. Please don't hesitate to ask in Brainly your queries. 
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Solve for x<br> 54 = 9(x+3)
sladkih [1.3K]
The answer to this question is
7 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
For each given p, let ???? have a binomial distribution with parameters p and ????. Suppose that ???? is itself binomially distr
pshichka [43]

Answer:

See the proof below.

Step-by-step explanation:

Assuming this complete question: "For each given p, let Z have a binomial distribution with parameters p and N. Suppose that N is itself binomially distributed with parameters q and M. Formulate Z as a random sum and show that Z has a binomial distribution with parameters pq and M."

Solution to the problem

For this case we can assume that we have N independent variables X_i with the following distribution:

X_i Bin (1,p) = Be(p) bernoulli on this case with probability of success p, and all the N variables are independent distributed. We can define the random variable Z like this:

Z = \sum_{i=1}^N X_i

From the info given we know that N \sim Bin (M,q)

We need to proof that Z \sim Bin (M, pq) by the definition of binomial random variable then we need to show that:

E(Z) = Mpq

Var (Z) = Mpq(1-pq)

The deduction is based on the definition of independent random variables, we can do this:

E(Z) = E(N) E(X) = Mq (p)= Mpq

And for the variance of Z we can do this:

Var(Z)_ = E(N) Var(X) + Var (N) [E(X)]^2

Var(Z) =Mpq [p(1-p)] + Mq(1-q) p^2

And if we take common factor Mpq we got:

Var(Z) =Mpq [(1-p) + (1-q)p]= Mpq[1-p +p-pq]= Mpq[1-pq]

And as we can see then we can conclude that   Z \sim Bin (M, pq)

8 0
3 years ago
Point B has coordinates ​(2​,1​). The​ x-coordinate of point A is −3. The distance between point A and point B is 13 units. What
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Answer:

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