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solniwko [45]
3 years ago
7

Seadrill Engineering sold software to oil-drilling firms. In addition to providing the software, the company also provides consu

lting services and support for 5 years to ensure smooth operation of the software. The total transaction price is $350,000. Based on standalone values, the company estimates the consulting services and support have a value of $150,000 and the software license has a value of $250,000. Seadrill generally records software sales using Sales Revenue account and consulting service using Service Revenue account. Assuming the performance obligations are not interdependent, the journal entry to record the transaction includes:A) a credit to sales revenue for $250,000 and a credit to unearned service revenue of $100,000.B) a credit to service revenue of $100,000.C) a credit to unearned service revenue of $100,000.D) a credit to sales revenue of $350,000.
Business
1 answer:
mr Goodwill [35]3 years ago
7 0

Answer:

a credit to sales revenue for $250,000 and a credit to unearned service revenue of $150,000

Explanation:

The Journal entry is shown below:-

Cash Dr, $400,000

        To Sales revenue $250,000

       To unearned service revenue $150,000

(Being cash receipts is recorded)

The unearned revenue from service is the revenue in which the customer has paid the money, and the company does not provide the services. Acceptance of the money for the warranty which has been extended. The seller expects to continue to provide the services.The income will not be gained from this, because the company will not be reported until the company refuses to deliver the services in the future.

For recording this we debited the cash as it increased the assets and credited the sales revenue and unearned service revenue as it increased the revenue and liability

This is the answer but the same is not provided in the given options  

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Gary did not pay his past three payments on his mortgage. What is the possible consequence he is facing?
Lapatulllka [165]

Answer: Foreclosure

Foreclosure refers to a bank’s act of taking possession of a mortgaged property when the mortgage holder fails to make the monthly mortgage payments.  

Foreclosure occurs when a home owner does not pay his monthly loan instalments for three consecutive months.

It is a legal process in which the home owner loses the ownership of the property and the banker gets the right to sell off the property in order to make up the loss on account of non payment.



6 0
3 years ago
An investment of $6,000 produces a net annual cash inflow of $2,000 for each of 5 years. What is the payback period? a.2 years b
mestny [16]

Answer:

3 years

Explanation:

The payback period measures how long it takes for the amount invested in a project to be recovered from the projects cash flows .

Number of years = Investment / cash flows

$6000 / $2000 = 3 years

I hope my answer helps you

4 0
4 years ago
On January 1, 2021, Weaver Corporation purchased a patent for $210,000. The remaining legal life is 20 years, but the company es
Ne4ueva [31]

Answer:

Requirement 1. Journal for purchasing Patent:

Jan 01, 2021    Patent Rights (Debit)                    210,000

                                  Cash/Bank (Credit)                            210,000

Requirement 2. Journal for amortization expense for the year ended 31 Dec, 2021:

Dec 31, 2021    Amortization expense - Patent    35,000

                                   Accumulated amortization                 35,000

Requirement 3. Journal for amortization expense for the year ended 31 Dec, 2022:

Dec 31, 2022    Amortization expense - Patent    35,000

                                   Accumulated amortization                 35,000

Requirement 4. Journal for incurring legal fees

Jan 31, 2023     Legal fees                                      30,000

                                    Cash/Bank                                          30,000

Requirement 5. Journal for amortization expense for the year ended 31 Dec, 2023:

Dec 31, 2023    Amortization expense - Patent    35,000

                                   Accumulated amortization                 35,000

Explanation:

Requirement 1.

Since Weaver corporation purchases a patent, it costs the company cash or bank balance. As the patent is a non-current intangible asset, it is a debit. On the other hand, as cash decreases due to the purchase of patent, the cash is a credit. In this journal, an asset (Non-current asset) increases, and another asset (Current asset) decreases. There will be no effect on the total asset.

Requirement 2, 3 and 5. All the calculations will be the same as it is a straight-line method of amortization. Straight-line depreciation (amortization) is a method of expense on an asset over a long period. The expense is the same over the period as the expense is calculated as the total cost divided by the useful number of years. Again, as the patent is an intangible asset; therefore, the asset has to be amortized instead of depreciated.

The amortization expense of patent is = $210,000/6 = $35,000

Since, the company estimates the patent's useful life will be 6 years. Therefore, the amortization expense will be $35,000 for each year.

Requirement 4: Since legal fees is an expense, the company pays for this due to the occurrence of legal issues. The expense decreases the cash; therefore, it is a credit. On the contrary, the legal fees are a debit as it decreases net income. The legal fees, however, does not affect the amortization expense as it is not adding to the cost of the patent.

7 0
3 years ago
Discounting cash flows involves
Triss [41]

Answer:

The correct answer is letter "D": discounting all expected future cash flows to reflect the time value of money.

Explanation:

Discounting cash flows takes place at any moment given when money is paid at one date but is received at a different point. Discounted cash flows are useful to measure the difference between the present value of money and the receivables that are expected to come at a later stage.

6 0
3 years ago
Bond prices and yields Assume that the Financial Management​ Corporation's ​$1 comma 000​-par-value bond has a 7.800 % ​coupon,
Neporo4naja [7]

Answer:

(a) Dollar price of the​ bond = Par value × Current price percentage

                                             = $1,000 × 106.124%

                                             = $1,061.24

(b) Bond's current yield:

Annual interest paid in dollars = Bond par value × Rate of interest

                                                  = $1,000 × 7.8%

                                                  = $78

Current\ yield = \frac{Interest}{Bond\ value}

Current\ yield = \frac{78}{1,061.24}

                              = 0.0734

                              = 7.34%

(c) Issue price of bond is $1,000 and current maturity price is $1,061.24. Thus, bond price is greater than the par value.

(d) Current yield is the return on bond at current price. Yield to maturity is 6.588 % and current yield is 7.34%. Since the current price is more than the par value, therefore, YTM is lower than the current yield.

3 0
3 years ago
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