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luda_lava [24]
3 years ago
12

Which triangle is similar to /\JKL A. /\JKM B. /\MKL C. /\KML D. /\LJK

Mathematics
2 answers:
klasskru [66]3 years ago
7 0

Answer:

ΔKML                                               Option C

Step-by-step explanation:

Given right triangle is ΔJKL

Where ∠JKL = 90°

Here KM is perpendicular to LJ.

In triangle ΔJKL & ΔKML

∠JKL ≅ ∠KML  (both are right angle)

∠JLK ≅ ∠KLM   (common angle in both the triangles)

So,

ΔJKL is similar to ΔKML.

That's the final answer.

I hope it will help you.

Savatey [412]3 years ago
4 0
It would c because they are both right angles
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riadik2000 [5.3K]

Answer:

1_11/20 pounds, or 1.55 pounds.

Step-by-step explanation:

Since at the beginning, he had 5 1/4 pounds and used 3/5, we subtract the amount of pounds. We are then left with 93/20 pounds, which he then splits among 3 containers. Dividing by three, we then get 31/20 pounds in one aquarium, or 1 11/20 pounds in each aquarium or 1.55 pounds.

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3 years ago
Haley works at a candy store. There are 10 types of bulk candy. Find the probability that one type of candy will be chosen more
DIA [1.3K]

Answer:

Probability that one type of candy will be chosen more than once in 10 trials = 0.2639

Step-by-step explanation:

This is a binomial experiment because

- A binomial experiment is one in which the probability of success doesn't change with every run or number of trials.

- It usually consists of a number of runs/trials with only two possible outcomes, a success or a failure. (10 trials, with the outcome of each trial being that we get the required candy or not)

- The outcome of each trial/run of a binomial experiment is independent of one another.

Binomial distribution function is represented by

P(X = x) = ⁿCₓ pˣ qⁿ⁻ˣ

n = total number of sample spaces = 10 trials

x = Number of successes required = number of times we want to pick a particular brand of candy = more than once, that is > 1

p = probability of success = probability of picking a particular brand of candy from a bulk with 10 different types of candies = (1/10) = 0.10

q = probability of failure = Probability of not picking our wanted candy = 1 - p = 1 - 0.1 = 0.90

P(X > 1) = 1 - P(X ≤ 1)

P(X ≤ 1) = P(X = 0) + P(X = 1)

P(X = 0) = ¹⁰C₀ (0.10)⁰ (0.90)¹⁰⁻⁰ = 0.3486784401

P(X = 1) = ¹⁰C₁ (0.10)¹ (0.90)¹⁰⁻¹ = 0.387420489

P(X ≤ 1) = 0.3486784401 + 0.387420489 = 0.7360989291

P(X > 1) = 1 - 0.7360989291 = 0.2639010709 = 0.2639

Hope this Helps!!!

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