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Schach [20]
3 years ago
13

A credit to a liability accounta.indicates an increase in the amount owed to creditors.b.indicates a decrease in the amount owed

to creditors.c.is an error.d.must be accompanied by a debit to an asset account.
Business
2 answers:
anastassius [24]3 years ago
7 0

Answer: A. indicates an increase in the amount owed to creditors.

Explanation: Since liabilities are basically an obligation, debt or responsibility owed to someone, a credit (increase) to a liability account indicates a corresponding increase in the amount owed to creditors (a person to whom a debt is owed). Liability can also be seen as a claim against a company's assets. This means that creditors have a claim against the company's assets. Liabilities owed to creditors are settled over time by/through the transfer of economic benefits which may include money, goods, or services.

lesya692 [45]3 years ago
4 0

Answer:

The correct answer is A. indicates an increase in the amount owed to creditors.

Explanation:

It groups all the accounts that represent the obligations contracted by the economic entity in development of the ordinary course of its activity, payable in money, goods or services.

It includes financial obligations, suppliers, accounts payable, taxes, levies and fees, labor obligations, deferred, other liabilities, estimated liabilities, provisions, bonds and business papers.

The accounts that make up this class will always have credit balances.

The liabilities expressed in foreign currency on the last day of the month or year, will be adjusted based on the exchange rate representative of the market at that date, recording such adjustment as a higher value of the liability charged to the results of the year, except when it should activate.

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Yes that is correct
3 0
3 years ago
The present value factor for an ordinary annuity at 10% for 6 periods is 4.3553. The lease does not transfer the property to Whi
gogolik [260]

Complete question:

On January 1. Year 1. White Co. sold a property with a remaining useful life of 20 years to Blue Co. for $900.000. At the same time. White entered into a contract with Blue for the right to use the property (leaseback) for a period of 6 years. with annual rental payments of 580.000 that approximate the market rental payments for similar properties. On January 1. Year 1. the carrying amount of the property was 5680.000. and its fair value was 5770.000. A discount rate for the lease of 10% is used by both White and Blue. The present value factor for an ordinary annuity at 10% for 6 periods is 4.3553. The lease does not transfer the property to White at the end of the lease term and does not include a purchase option.  

What amount of lease expense for the right of use of the property is recognised by White in Year 1 ?

A. $0

B. $130,000

C. $90,000

D. $220,000

Answer:

$90,000 amount of lease expense for the right of use of the property is recognised by White in Year 1

Explanation:

If the leaseback is known as an operating lease, the original transition to the buyer-lessor of the asset should be taken into account as the selling of an asset, given that all the income identification requirements have been fulfilled.

If the deal is of equal value, the lender lease is informed of the gain or loss of sale between the purchase price and the sum of the land that is held. Yet this is not a equal value trade. The property's sale price is higher than its market value. Accordingly, the income or loss on sale seems to be the difference between the equal worth and the value of the land.

Therefore, on 1 January, White records a benefit of $90,000 in revenue of $770,000 (fair value of $680,000 in carrying amounts)

4 0
3 years ago
Calculate the balance in Accumulated Depreciation at the end of the second year for all three methods
eimsori [14]

This is the full question:

At the beginning of 2016, Air Asia purchased a used airplane at a cost of $40,000,000. Air Asia expects the plane to remain useful for eight years (5,000,000 miles) and to have a residual value of $5,000,000. Air Asia expects the plane to be flow 1,200,000 the first year and 1,400,000 the second year.

1) Compute second-year (2017) depreciation expense using the following methods

a. Straight-line

b. Units-of-production

c. Double-declining-balance

2) Calculate the balance in Accumulated Depreciation at the end of the second year for all three methods:

Answer:

Explanation:

1)a) Straight-line

Depreciable base = Cost of the Asset - Residual Value

                              = $40,000,000 - $5,000,000

                              = $35,000,000

Depreciation expense per year = Depreciable base / years of useful life

                                                     = $35,000,000 / 8

                                                     = $4,375,000

The depreciation expense for the second year is = $4,375,000

                                                                                       

b) Units-of-production

Units of Production Rate = Depreciable Base / Units Over Useful Life

                                        = $35,000,000 / 5,000,000 miles

                                        = 7

Depreciation Expense = Units of Production Rate x Actual Units Produced

                                      = 7 x 1,400,000 miles in the second year

                                      = $9,800,000

c. Double-declining-balance

Double-declining balance = 2 x (Asset Cost - Residual Value ) / Useful Life of the Asset

                                           = 2 x ($40,000,000 - $5,000,000) / 8

                                           = $8,750,000

2) a) Straight-line Accumulated depreciation

We simply multiply the previous answer by two = $4,375,000 x 2

                                                                              = $8,750,000

2) b) Units-of-production Accumulated depreciation

First we find the depreciation expense for the first year using the same formula as above

= 7 x 1,200,000

= $8,400,000

Finally we simply add up depreciation expense for the two years

= $8,400,000 + $9,800,000

= $18,200,000

2) c) Double-declining-balance Accumulated depreciation

We simply multiply the first result by two = $8,750,000 x 2

                                                                    = $17,500,000

                                       

                           

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