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Taya2010 [7]
3 years ago
11

The asteroid ceres lies at an average distance of 414 million kilometers from the sun. The period of revolution of ceres around

the sun is approximately

Physics
2 answers:
nikitadnepr [17]3 years ago
8 0

Answer:

Answer is 1.156x10^23 sec

Explanation:

According to kepler's law, the square of the period of revolution is proportional to the cube of the distance within planets.

At a distance r of 414 million kilometers I.e 414x10^6 km, period calculation is shown in the image below.

7nadin3 [17]3 years ago
6 0

Answer:

T2 = 1680,4 days

Explanation:

Kepplers law:

\frac{T^{2} }{a^{3} }  = constant

For Earth:

T1 = 365 days ; a1 = 149 597 870 700 m

For Ceres:

T2 = ? days ; a1 = 414*10^{9}  m

Then:

\frac{T1^{2} }{a1^{3} }  = \frac{T2^{2} }{a2^{3} }  ----> T2 =  T1*\sqrt{\frac{a2^{3}}{a1^{3}}}

Replacing values:

T2 = 1680,4 days

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The best question that could prompt a scientific investigation is: <u>What substances dissolve in ocean water?</u> 

This way the person experimenting can use several variables and make observations. Upon making observations, the person can be able to gather as much data as he can in order to answer the original question that he asked.
7 0
3 years ago
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Gravity pushes objects away from each other TRUE OR FALSE
e-lub [12.9K]

Answer:

false

Explanation:

5 0
3 years ago
Two simple pendulum of slightly different length , are set off oscillating in step is a time of 20s has elasped , during which t
adell [148]

Answer:

Length of longer pendulum = 99.3 cm

Length of shorter pendulum = 82.2 cm

Explanation:

Since the longer pendulum undergoes 10 oscillations in 20 s, its period T = 20 s/10 = 2 s.

From T = 2π√(l/g), the length of the pendulum. l = T²g/4π²

substituting T = 2s and g = 9.8 m/s² we have

l = T²g/4π²

= (2 s)² × 9.8 m/s² ÷ 4π²

= 39.2 m ÷ 4π²

= 0.993 m

= 99.3 cm

Now, for the shorter pendulum to be in step with the longer pendulum, it must have completed some oscillations more than the longer pendulum. Let x be the number of oscillations more in t = 20 s. Let n₁ = number of oscillations of longer pendulum and n₂ = number of oscillations of longer pendulum.

So, n₂ = n₁ + x. Also n₁ = t/T₁ and n₂ = t/T₂ where T₂ = period of shorter pendulum.

t/T₂ = t/T₁ + x

1/T₂ = 1/T₁ + x  (1)

Also, the T₂ = t/n₂ = t/(n₁ + x)  (2)

From (1) T₂ = T₁/(T₁ + x) (3)

equating (2) and (3) we have

t/(n₁ + x) = T₁/(T₁ + x)

substituting t = 20 s and n₁ = 10 and T₁ = 2s, we have

20 s/(10 + x) = 2/(2 + x)

10/(10 + x) = 1/(2 + x)

(10 + x)/10 = (2 + x)

(10 + x) = 10(2 + x)

10 + x = 20 + 10x

collecting like terms

10x - x = 20 - 10

9x = 10

x = 10/9

x = 1.11

x ≅ 1 oscillation

substituting x into (2)

T₂ = t/n₂ = t/(n₁ + x)

= 20/(10 + 1)

= 20/11

= 1.82 s

Since length l = T²g/4π²

substituting T = 1.82 s and g = 9.8 m/s² we have

l = T²g/4π²

= (1.82 s)² × 9.8 m/s² ÷ 4π²

= 32.46 m ÷ 4π²

= 0.822 m

= 82.2 cm

6 0
3 years ago
The ratio of the output work to input force is the _ of the machine ?
Colt1911 [192]
<h3><u>Answer;</u></h3>

Mechanical advantage

<h3><u>Explanation;</u></h3>
  • Mechanical advantage is the ratio of force output from a machine divided by the force input into the machine.
  • Mechanical advantage measures the machine's force-magnifying effect. It is an advantage gained by using simple machines to accomplish work with less effort.
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3 0
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Physics question help
S_A_V [24]

Answer:

not know sorry sorry

Explanation:

sorry sorry

8 0
3 years ago
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