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Andreyy89
4 years ago
5

Erin and Dooley, a married couple, borrow $120,000 from Capital & Credit Bank to buy a home. When Erin and Dooley divorce, t

hey are unable to make payments on the mortgage. The market value of the home has declined to less than the balance of the loan. Capital & Credit agrees to a sale of the property for this amount. This is _____.
Business
1 answer:
Semenov [28]4 years ago
4 0
The answer is a short sale :)
You might be interested in
Plainville Corporation has the following data, in thousands. Assuming a 365-day year, what is the firm's cash conversion cycle?
devlian [24]

Answer:

Inventory cycle  = <u>Inventory </u>               x 365  days

                             Cost of goods sold      

Inventory cycle  = <u>$75,000</u>     x 365 days

                              $360,000  

                           = 76.04 days

Receivable days =  <u>Accounts receivable</u> x  365 days

                                       Sales        

                            = <u>$160,000</u>   x 365 days

                               $600,000  

                            =  97.33 days

Payable days      = <u>Accounts payable</u>  x 365 days

                              Cost of sales      

                            = <u>$25,000 </u>    x 365 days

                               $360,000  

                            = 25.35 days

Cash conversion cycle

= Inventory cycle + Receivable days - Payable days

= 76.04 days + 97.33 days - 25.35 days

=  148.0 days

Explanation:

Cash conversion cycle is calculated as raw inventory cycle plus receivable days minus payable days. Inventory cycle is the ratio of inventory to cost of goods sold multiplied by number of days in a year. Receivable days refer to the ratio of accounts receivable to sales multiplied by number of days in a year. Payable day is the ratio of accounts payable to cost of goods sold multiplied by number of days in a year.

6 0
3 years ago
pdf Suppose that the pound is pegged to gold at £20 per ounce and the dollar is pegged to gold at $35 per ounce. This implies an
Tasya [4]

Answer:

1) Buy 10 ounces of gold with the 350 dollars

2) Sell the 10 ounces of gold for £200

3) Exchange £200 for 360 dollars

Explanation:

Due to the difference between the exchange rate in gold and currency, a 2.1%  (1.80 / 1.75) advantage can be obtained.  

You start in the gold market with 350 dollars which are equal to 10 ounces of gold which are equal to £200. This according to the gold prices, witch generate a 1.75 exchange rate.

Then you go to the financial market where the exchange rate is larger (1.80) and with the £200 you get 360 dollars.  

6 0
3 years ago
Luzadis Company makes furniture using the latest automated technology. The company uses a job-order costing system and applies m
zmey [24]

Answer:

Answer:

1. Overhead over applied= $521,000

2. Factory Overhead   Dr.     $ 521,000

Cost Of Goods Sold Cr.    $ 521,000

3. Work in Process,  (ratio)   $521,000 *    7%=  36,470

Finished Goods,              $521,000   *     19%=  98,990

Cost of Goods Sold       $521,000    *    74%=  385,540

Total                        $521,000     100%

4. Difference between the two CGS= $ 136,060

Explanation:

Predetermined Overhead  Costs $1,152,000

Estimated activity level of 72,000 machine-hours

Overhead rate= $ 1152,000/ 72,000= $ 16 per hour

Manufacturing overhead cost $551,000

Actual hours = 67,000

Overhead applied to WIP = 67,000 * 16= $ 1072,000

Overhead over applied= $ 1072,000 - $551000= $521,000

Part 2:

Factory Overhead   Dr.     $ 521,000

Cost Of Goods Sold Cr.    $ 521,000

The Cost of Goods Sold is credited and Factory overhead is debited.

Part 3:

Suppose the overhead is applied in the following ratio

Work in Process,  (ratio)   $37,520          7%   (37520/536,00*100%)

Finished Goods,              $101,840         19%      (101840/536,00*100%)

Cost of Goods Sold       $396, 640        74%     (396,640/536,00*100%)

Total                        $536,000     100%

The  overhead over applied  would be allocated in the following way applying the same ratio as determined above.

Work in Process,  (ratio)   $521,000 *    7%=  36,470

Finished Goods,              $521,000   *     19%=  98,990

Cost of Goods Sold       $521,000    *    74%=  385,540

Total                        $521,000     100%

Part 4:

Cost of Goods Sold ( overhead applied of $396, 640) $1,472,600

Less    Overhead   overapplied      $ 521,000

CGS = $ 951,000

Cost of Goods Sold (overhead applied to WIP & FG) $1,472,600

Less   Overapplied Overhead $ 385,540

CGS=  $ 1087,060

Difference between the two CGS = $ 1087,060- $ 951,000= $ 136,060

5 0
3 years ago
A worker gets a raise of $120 per month and quickly decides to spend $90 of the money on necessities and the occasional luxury,
musickatia [10]

Answer:

MPC = 0.75

Explanation:

Marginal Propensity to Consume (MPC) is a part of Keynesian macroeconomic theory and is calculated by the change in consumption divided by the change in income. It quantifies the increased consumption which occurs with an increase in disposable income

MPC = \frac{/Δconsumption}{/Δincome}

MPC = \frac{90}{120}

MPC = 0.75

6 0
3 years ago
Which of the following statements is CORRECT? a. If an investor buys enough stocks, he or she can, through diversification, elim
Len [333]

Answer:

C. A security's beta measures its non-diversifiable, or market, risk relative to that of an average stock.

8 0
4 years ago
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