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-Dominant- [34]
3 years ago
14

Let f be the function given by f(x)=ln x/x for all x 0. the derivative of f is given by

Mathematics
1 answer:
Dmitriy789 [7]3 years ago
6 0
Using the quotient rule

f'(x)  =   x * 1/x  - ln x          1 - ln x
            -----------------   =      ---------  <-------- ur answer
                  x^2                     x^2
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dlinn [17]

Answer and Step-by-step explanation:

<u>Mandy travels more miles.</u>

We determine this by multiplying the distance from home by the number of trips.

For Mandy, she lives 10 miles away from school, and takes 9 trips. 9 times 10 is 90 miles.

For Matt, he lives 8 miles away from school, and takes 11 trips. 11 times 8 is 88 miles.

Many travels 2 more miles in total than Matt.

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5 0
3 years ago
WHO WANTS BRANLIEST?!?!?!?!?!?!?!?
denis23 [38]

Answer:

I Do

Step-by-step explanation:

5 0
3 years ago
46.The function f graphed above is the function f(x) = log2(x) + 2 for x &gt; 0. Find a formula for the inverse of this function
pantera1 [17]

Answer:

The inverse for log₂(x) + 2  is - log₂x + 2.

Step-by-step explanation:

Given that

f(x) = log₂(x) + 2

Now to find the inverse of any function we put we replace x by 1/x.

f(x) = log₂(x) + 2

f(1/x) =g(x)= log₂(1/x) + 2

As we know that

log₂(a/b) = log₂a - log₂b

g(x) = log₂1 - log₂x + 2

We know that  log₂1 = 0

g(x) = 0 - log₂x + 2

g(x) =  - log₂x + 2

So the inverse for log₂(x) + 2  is - log₂x + 2.

3 0
3 years ago
I have a brainly plus subscription and it's not letting me see the answers....whats going on
mr Goodwill [35]

Answer:

its a glitch

Step-by-step explanation:

4 0
3 years ago
he number of surface flaws in plastic panels used in the interior of automobiles has a Poisson distribution with a mean of 0.02
Yakvenalex [24]

Answer:

a) 98.01%

b) 13.53\%

c) 27.06%

Step-by-step explanation:

Since a car has 10 square feet of plastic panel, the expected value (mean) for a car to have one flaw is 10*0.02 = 0.2  

If we call P(k) the probability that a car has k flaws then, as P follows a Poisson distribution with mean 0.2,

P(k)= \frac{0.2^ke^{-0.2}}{k!}

a)

In this case, we are looking for P(0)

P(0)= \frac{0.2^0e^{-0.2}}{0!}=e^{-0.2}=0.9801=98.01\%

So, the probability that a car has no flaws is 98.01%

b)

Ten cars have 100 square feet of plastic panel, so now the mean is 100*0.02 = 2 flaws every ten cars.

Now P(k) is the probability that 10 cars have k flaws and  

P(k)= \frac{2^ke^{-2}}{k!}

and  

P(0)= \frac{2^0e^{-2}}{0!}=0.1353=13.53\%

And the probability that 10 cars have no flaws is 13.53%

c)

Here, we are looking for P(1) with P defined as in b)

P(1)= \frac{2^1e^{-2}}{1!}=2e^{-2}=0.2706=27.06\%

Hence, the probability that at most one car has no flaws is 27.06%

6 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
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