P is inversely proportional to Q.

1 answer:

Volgvan3 years ago

7 0

$If\ P\ is\ inversely\ proportional\ to\ Q\ then:\\\\P\times Q=constans\\\\P=100;\ Q=32\\\\100\times32=3200\\\\P=2Q\\\\therefore\\\\P\times Q=2Q\times Q=2Q^2\\\\2Q^2=3200\ \ \ \ |divide\ both\ sides\ by\ 2\\Q^2=1600\ \ \ \ \ |sqare\ rot\ both\ sides\\Q=\sqrt{1600}\\\boxed{Q=40}$

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a) NO

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Step-by-step explanation:

Thinking about this through Venn diagrams we can sort of understand that:

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Think of it in terms of calculating areas circles A and B, if the circles were disjoint, then the sum of the areas A and B would be 0.2+0.2. But if the circles were overlapping then the sum of the areas would be 0.2+0.2-P(A ∩ B), where P(A ∩ B) is the overlapping part)

since there's no overlapping P(A ∩ B) = 0.

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True
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