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Flura [38]
3 years ago
14

Sanders, a 62-year-old single individual, sold his principal residence for the net amount of $500,000 after all selling expenses

. Sanders bought the house 15 years ago and has occupied it until it sold. On the date of sale, the house had a cost basis of $200,000. Within six months, Sanders purchased a new house for $600,000. What amount of gain should Sanders recognize from the sale of the residence g
Business
1 answer:
grin007 [14]3 years ago
5 0

Answer:

$50,000

Explanation:

Recognized gain can be calculated by deducting the exclusion available from the realized gain. To qualify for exclusion from the realized gain Sanders has met all the requirements of exclusion.

NOTE: Requirments for exclusion are given at the end of solution

DATA

Sale proceeds = $500,000

Cost basis = $200,000

exclusion available for single person = $250,000

Gain =?

Calculation

Realized gain on sale of home = Sale proceeds –  Cost basis

Realized gain on sale of home = $500,000 - $200,000

Realized gain on sale of home =  $300,000

Recognized gain = Realized gain - exclusion available

Recognized gain = $300,000 - $250,000

Recognized gain = $50,000

Requirements for exclusion

1. You've owned the home for two of the last five years.  

2. You used the home as your principal residence for two of the last five years.

3. You haven't used the exclusion on another property sale within the last two years.

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<span>The percentage of work force involved in primary and secondary activities is probably equal to or less than 30%. In an economy like Singapore, development has been really fast due to which service sector particularly tourism accounts a major share. Hence the workforce involved in primary and secondary activities is declining and the share of workforce in these activities is approx 30% of the total workforce.</span>
3 0
3 years ago
Jmes Graham Manufacturing is a small manufacturer that uses machine-hours as its
IgorLugansk [536]

Answer:

Instructions are below.

Explanation:

Giving the following information:

Company - Job 62 - Job 63

Direct materials: $60,000 - $4,500 - $7,100

Direct labor: $25,000 - $2,500 - $4,200

overhead costs $72,000

Machine hours: 90,000 - 1,350 - 3,100

During 2019, the actual machine-hours totaled 95,000, and actual overhead costs were $71,000. Job 62 consisting of 1,000 units and Job 63 consisting of 2000 units were completed during the month.

A) To calculate the estimated manufacturing overhead rate we need to use the following formula:

Estimated manufacturing overhead rate= total estimated overhead costs for the period/ total amount of allocation base

Estimated manufacturing overhead rate= 72,000/90,000

Estimated manufacturing overhead rate=  0.8 per machine-hour

B) Total manufacturing cost= direct material + direct labor + allocated overhead

Job 62:

Total manufacturing cost= 4,500 + 2,500 + 0.8*1,350

Total manufacturing cost= $8,080

Job 63:

Total manufacturing cost= 7,100 + 4,200 + 0.8*3,100

Total manufacturing cost= $13,780

C) Unitary cost= total cost/ number of units

Job 62:

Unitary cost= 8,080/1,000= $8.08

Job 63:

Unitary cost= 13,780/2,000= $6.89

D) First, we need to apply overhead for the company as a whole:

Allocated MOH= Estimated manufacturing overhead rate* Actual amount of allocation base

Allocated MOH= 0.8*95,000

Allocated MOH= $76,000

Now, we can calculate the over/under applied overhead:

Under/over applied overhead= real overhead - allocated overhead

Under/over applied overhead= 71,000 - 76,000

Overapplied overhead= $5,000

E) Job 62= 14,000

Job 63= 18,000

Gross profit= sales - cost of goods sold

Job 62:

Gross profit= 14,000 - 8,080= $5,920

Job 63:

Gross profit= 18,000 - 13,780= $4,220

7 0
3 years ago
A title clause in a contract provides exactly what type of title the buyer is expecting to receive from the seller: Group of ans
damaskus [11]

Answer:

True

Explanation:

A retention of title clause within a contract of sale essentially means that ownership remains with the supplier, until full payment for the goods has been received. That is the seller of a particular product still holds full custody of his goods until the buyer fully pays for the goods.

3 0
3 years ago
Which service will a c-snp or d-snp member in the high risk care management category receive?.
Thepotemich [5.8K]

The  service a  c-snp or d-snp member in the high risk care management category receive is: Case Management such as telephonic, digital and/or face-to-face according to a person needs.

<h3>What is CSNP?</h3>

CSNP which full meaning is chronic condition special needs plan  is a plan that  that enables people that has been diagnosed with chronic health condition to enroll for and this people must be a beneficiary of  Medicare plan.

Medicare is an health insurance coverage that help to cover the medical cost of those that enroll under the plan.

Therefore the service a  c-snp or d-snp member in the high risk care management category receive is: Case Management such as telephonic, digital and/or face-to-face based on individual needs.

Learn more about CSNP here:brainly.com/question/25075356

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7 0
2 years ago
The Most recent financial statements for Moose Tours, Inc., appear below. Sales for 2016 are projected to grow by 20 percent. In
Aneli [31]

Answer:

$5,006.07

Explanation:

The external financing needed = Projected Increase in Assets - Increase in Liabilities - Increase in Retained Earnings

Projected Increase in Asset = Assets Value*Sales Growth Rate

Projected Increase in Assets = $364,720 * 20%

Projected Increase in Assets = $72,944

Increase in Liabilities = Liabilities * Sales Growth Rate

Increase in Liabilities = $69,600 * 20%

Increase in Liabilities = $13,920

<em>To calculate the Increase in Retained Earning, the below calculations are needed:</em>

a. Profit Margin Rate = Net Income / Sales * 100

Profit Margin Rate = 75,000 / 751,000 * 100

Profit Margin Rate = 9.99%

b. Dividend Payout Ratio = Dividend / Net Income * 100

Dividend Payout Ratio = 30,000 / 75,000 * 100

Dividend Payout Ratio = 0.4

Dividend Payout Ratio = 40%

Retention Rate = 1 - Dividend Payout Ratio

Retention Rate = 1 - 0.40

Retention Rate = 0.60

Retention Rate = 60%

c. Expected Sales = $751,000 * 1.20 = $901,200

So, the Increase in Retained Earning = Expected Sales * Profit Margin * Retention Rate = $901,200 *9.99% * 60% = $54,017.93

Therefore, External Fund Needed = $72,944 - $13,920 - $54,017.93 = $5,006.07

3 0
3 years ago
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