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2 years ago

7

I need help i'm never good at math :((

1 answer:

Alona [7]2 years ago

4 0

Answer:

The answer is d. (0,-6)

Step-by-step explanation:

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45% percent of what number is 63<br>please answer asap<br><br><br>

LiRa [457]

Answer:

140 !!

Step-by-step explanation:

hope this helps :)

3 0

3 years ago

Read 2 more answers

Is y=7x proportional

umka21 [38]

Answer: Yes. It is inversely proportional.

Step-by-step explanation:

In your question, the constant of proportionality already jump out at us which is to get y, we have to multiply x by 7. Therefore the constant of proportionality is y=7x.

4 0

2 years ago

What is the area of the figure?

frutty [35]

Answer:

252 square inches.

Step-by-step explanation:

Split the Cube into three shapes.

You can make the biggest cube 12 by 15 and mutliply those together.

That would be 180.

Now you are left with 2 other smaller cubes.

3 * 6 = 18

6 times 9 = 54

The Final Answer is 252 square inches.

8 0

2 years ago

Kendra invested twice as much money at an annual rate of 7% as she did at an annual rate of 5.5%. How much did she invest at the

Lady bird [3.3K]

Answer:

$1,679.42

Step-by-step explanation:

Let $x$ be the amount Kendra invested at 5.5%. Since the amount invested at 7% is twice the amount she invested at 5.5%, she invested $2x$ at 7%.

Remember that $I=Prt$ , where:

$I$ is the interest earned

$P$ is the principal or initial investment

$r$ is the interest rate in decimal form

$t$ is the time in years

- For the 5.5% investment:

$P=x$

$r=\frac{5.5}{100} =0.055$

$t=1$

Let's replace the values in our formula, $I=x(0.055)(1)$ , which simplified is $I=0.055x$

- For the 7% investment:

$P=2x$

$r=\frac{7.7}{100} =0.077$

$t=1$

$I=2x(0.077)(1)$

$I=0.154x$

Now, we that the the amount of interest earned combining the two investment is $175.50, so:

$0.055x+0.154x=175.50$

$0.209x=175.50$

$x=\frac{175.50}{0.209}$

$x=839.71$

She invested $839.71 at 5.5%, and since she invested twice that amount at 7%, she invested 2*($839.71 ) = $1,679.42 at 7% (the higher rate).

8 0

3 years ago

Limif f(x)=cosx−1sin2x, then limx→0f(x) is equivalent to which of the following?

Harlamova29_29 [7]

The equivalent limit of the function as x tends to zero is -1/2

Given the limit of a function:

$f(x)=\frac{cosx-1}{sin2x}$

Taking the limit of the function as x tends to zero

$f(x)=\frac{cosx-1}{sin2x}\\ \lim_{x\to 0} \frac{cosx-1}{sin2x}\\=\frac{cos0-1}{sin2(0)}\\=\frac{1-1}{0}\\=\frac{0}{0}(ind)$

Applying the L'hospital rule will give:

$\lim_{x \to 0} \frac{-sinx}{2sinxcosx}\\= \frac{-sin0}{2sin0cos0}\\=\frac{0}{0}(ind)$

Applying the l'hospital rule the second time:

$\lim_{x \to 0} \frac{-cosx}{2(-sin^2x+cos^2x)}\\= \frac{-cos0}{2(-sin^20+cos^20)}\\=\frac{-1}{2}$

Hence the equivalent limit of the function as x tends to zero is -1/2

Learn more here: brainly.com/question/20512128

3 0

2 years ago