Answer:
3 billion
Explanation:
the financial account will be the cash inflow less the cash outflow:
Increase in foreign holdings of assets in the United States = $4 billion Increase in U.S. holdings of assets in foreign countries = -$1 billion
4 billion of dollar enter the US from aboard while 1 billion left the country with destination aboard in total the financial account will be:
4 billion - 1 billion = 3 billion
Answer:
EXPLAINING STRESSFUL EVENTS BY ATTRIBUTING THEM TO A TEMPORARY SITUATION.
Explanation:
Attribution theory deals with how the social perceiver uses information to arrive at causal explanations for events. It examines what information is gathered and how it is combined to form a causal judgment.
Explanatory style is the characteristic, habitual way individuals explain the causes of good and bad events they experience.
Stressful events can either be good or bad. People may attribute stressful events to factors that are either temporary or permanent and specific or universal.
Carmela's thought means she is explaining her stressful work (event) by attributing it to a temporary situation since she thinks she will get the hang of it in a few months.
Therefore, an example of the explanatory style is EXPLAINING STRESSFUL EVENTS BY ATTRIBUTING THEM TO TEMPORARY EVENTS.
C = 50 + 0.8Y is the consumption function that is consistent with the provided data. The MPC is determined by subtracting the change in consumption from the change in disposable income, which equals 160/200, or 0.8.
Marginal propensity calculation.
$200 billion less $0 billion equals $200 billion in changes to disposable income.
Consumption change equals $210 minus $50, or $160 billion.
MPC = Change in Consumption/Change in Disposable Income, which equals $160 billion/$200 billion and is equal to 0.8.
There is a 0.8 marginal tendency to consume.
Step 2
This is how consumption function is defined.
C = a + bY
Where,
a = Consumption at zero income level
b = MPC
In given case,
$50 billion would be consumed at a level of income zero.
MPC is 0.8
So,
C = 50 + 0.8Y is the consumption function that matches the provided data.
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Answer:
The term Operating leverage refers to the degree to which a firm uses debt financing (or other types of fixed-cost financing) to fund its operations.
Explanation:
Operating leverage is a measure of how revenue growth translates into growth in operating income
The correct answer is <span>a.Because an older person has less time to make up for bad investments
Young people have their entire life to fix their bad investments and can invest into new things that are up and coming and developing. Older people don't have time for that and have to approach investments differently.</span>