the coefficient for the first term is 1, the next is 11 and so on... now, notice, the elements of the binomial, the 1st element starts off with 11, and every term it goes down by 1, the 2nd element starts off at 0, and goes up by 1 in each term.
now, to get the next coefficient, you simply, "get the product of the current coefficient and the exponent of the 1st element, and divide that by the exponent of the 2nd element in the next term".
for example, how did we get 165 for the 4th term.... well (55*9)/3
how did we get 462 for the 6th term? well (330*7)/5.
and then you can just expand it from there.
Answer:
The negative counterpart
Step-by-step explanation:
x * -1 = -x
For example, 3 * -1 = -3
Hope this helps.
Answer:
C, The marble is 3 times as likely to be black as it is to be white.
Step-by-step explanation:
The probability of a marble being drawn is:
number of marbles of that color/total number of marbles
Find total number of marbles
5+8+4+15= 35
So the probability of drawing:
white: 5/32
polka dot: 8/32
striped: 4/32
black: 15/32
The probability of drawing white, polka dot, or striped is obviously different, so A is wrong.
The probability of drawing every color but black is 5/32 + 8/32 + 4/32 = 17/32, which is more than the chance of drawing black, so B is wrong.
The probability of drawing black is 15/32, and that is 3 times larger than the probability of drawing white (5/32), so C is correct.
The probablility of drawing a polka dot is 8/32, which is not four times as large as stripe (4/32), so D is wrong.
The terms of subtraction are called minuend and subtrahend
Answer:
A. { }
Step-by-step explanation:
Absolute value cannot be less than zero.
-4 < 0
There is no solution for x, ∈, R.
Hope this helps.
