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algol [13]
3 years ago
13

How are the cultures in South America like the cultures in Mexico and how are they different?

History
1 answer:
Kisachek [45]3 years ago
3 0
There are of course many ways in which these areas are both similar and different, but perhaps the most major similarity is that they both rely heavily on agriculture for income, and a difference is that they were colonized by different countries.
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What institution was the most in society, giving it stability and order, during the middle ages
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Explanation:

The language differences of the Latin speaking Western and Greek speaking Eastern Roman empire led to them interpreting the Bible differently as some phrases were translated differently in one language as opposed to another.

This difference contributed to a gradual division between the two churches which culminated with the Great Schism of 1054AD where the Catholic Church and Eastern Orthodox Churches were formally split.

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Match each of the terms below with its definition.
juin [17]

Answer:

Absolute  advantage: The ability to produce  more cheaply.

Comparative  advantage: The existence of lower  opportunity costs than  competitors.

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Explanation:

The four terms that are defined above have to do with trade and the economic theories behind the different trade policies that countries employ. Protectionism is employed when countries want to avoid trade with outside countries and to lower competition with outside countries. Therefore, a country may impose tariffs that make importing goods very expensive. A country will have an absolute advantage in a product if they can make it much cheaper than another country. For example, timber products in Canada will cost less because they have an abundance of forests compared to other countries. A country may have an absolute advantage in one industry but that still may not be its comparative advantage. The country will have to weigh the trading opportunity costs are. Say that one country has no farmland but it has lots of oil. The other country has farmland and oil, but is willing to forgo trading oil in order to trade food for oil with the other country because the opportunity costs for forgoing oil are lower. Now the second country has a comparative advantage in food and the first country has a comparative advantage in oil.   David Ricardo believed that comparative advantage would lead to specialization as in countries would specialize in the products they have a comparative advantage in.

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Read 2 more answers
Some scholars Why did the Puritans leave England for America?
Temka [501]
<span>The Puritans separated from the churches in their local parishes where preaching was viewed as inadequate, hiring their own lecturers who were well-versed in reform theology. These lecturers were prosecuted by the monarch and Church of England officials. The last straw may have been when King Charles I dissolved Parliament in 1629. This dissolution prevented Puritan leaders from working within the system to effect change and left them vulnerable to persecution. Moderate Puritans chartered the Massachusetts Bay Colony in the same year. The New World represented both a refuge from persecution and an opportunity to establish a “Zion in the wilderness.” Puritans imagined their migration to the New World mirrored the Biblical story of Exodus. Between 1629 and 1640, over 20,000 men, women and children left England to settle permanently in the Massachusetts Bay Colony in the Americas. When Parliament was re-established in 1640, migration dropped drastically.</span>
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