Answer:
The correct answer is "should continue producing 500 lbs of apples"
Explanation:
(In a perfect market)
When the price is = marginal cost. This means that if you increase your production, the benefits-profits will be the same as if you produce the same quantity.
When the Price > Marginal cost, means that consumers demand more for that good, so the producer has an incentive to increase the supply
When the Price < Marginal cost, means that production is higher than the consumer's demand. This is an incentive to decrease the supply.
For this case, the best option is to continue producing the same quantity of units, 500 lbs of apples.
Answer:
The value of the call option today is $7.73
Explanation:
The value or price of the call option under the two state model is calculated based on the assumption that there is no opportunity for arbitrage profit. The value of call option will be based on the return in case the call option is exercised and the probability of earning that return.
The strike price is $105
The return if price goes to $122 and option is exercised is 122 - 105 = $17
The return if the price goes down to $88 will be 0 as the call option will not be exercised.
Thus, the expected return is = 0.5 * 17 + 0.5 * 0 = $8.5
This return will be earned after 1 year. To calculate the value of the call option today, we need to discount this return to present value using the risk free rate.
V0 or value today = 8.5 / (1+0.1) = $7.727 rounded off to $7.73
1)The cm ratio<span> is the difference between a company's sales and variable expenses (expenses proportional to units produced), expressed as a <span>percentage. Hence, we have that the costs of the product per unit are 70%= 100%-30% of the unit income, thus they are 40*70%=28$. Thus, the variable expenses per unit are 28$.
2) In order to break even, they have to make profit of 180000$ from sales. Each unit gives a profit of 12$=40$-28$ (unit profit). Hence, in order to make a profit of 180000$, the have to sell 180000/12=15000 units. Those units will bring in sales of 40*15000=600000$. We also have that if the company wants to make a net profit of 60000$, the profit from the unit sales needs to be 240000$ in total. Hence, they will need 240000/12=20000 units and the sales will be 40*20000=800000$ at that point.
3) Let us calculate the new cost. It is obviously 28-4=24$. The new profit margin per unit is 40-24=16$. Hence, to break even this time they will need only 180000/16=11250 units. They will be sold for 40*11250=450000$ in total. To make that additional profit of 60000$, they will need to sell 60000/16 more units, hence 3750 more units. This means that they need to do an additional 150000 dollars in sales. With the new variable cost, to achieve profit of 60000 they need to sell 11250+3750=15000 units and they will cost 600000$
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The best valuation technique to reduce the value of Karl's gross estate is C) Special use valuation on the CDs.
<h3>What is special use valuation?</h3>
Special use valuation is a valuation method that determines property value on the basis of its “current use” rather than its “highest and best use.”
Special use valuation is permitted by the Internal Revenue Code (IRC) Section 2032A.
However, the special use valuation method is for real estate and not CDs.
Thus, the best valuation technique to reduce the value of Karl's gross estate is C) Special use valuation on the CDs.
Learn more about the special use valuation method at brainly.com/question/3925584
Accomplishment is the correct answer
