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Luba_88 [7]
4 years ago
10

Find the area of the irregular figure.

Mathematics
2 answers:
Lera25 [3.4K]4 years ago
7 0

Answer:

a

Step-by-step explanation:

PilotLPTM [1.2K]4 years ago
6 0

Answer:

Option A. 432\ units^{2}

Step-by-step explanation:

we know that

The area of the irregular figure is equal to the area of two trapezoids

The area of trapezoid is equal to

A=\frac{1}{2}(b1+b2)h

where

b1,b2 are the parallel bases

h is the perpendicular distance between the parallel bases

<u>Find the left trapezoid area</u>

A1=\frac{1}{2}(4+25)(16)=232\ units^{2}

<u>Find the trapezoid area on the right</u>

A2=\frac{1}{2}(25+15)(10)=200\ units^{2}

The area of the irregular figure is

A=A1+A2=232\ units^{2}+200\ units^{2}=432\ units^{2}

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Answer:

(1) P=4a+4

(2) P=2a+4\sqrt{42}a

Step-by-step explanation:

Well, let us call longer side b, shorter side a and diagonal d. The perimeter of a rectangle is 2*(a+b). Let us write this formula as P=2*(a+b)

In (1) it is stated that b=a+2. Hence, the perimeter of the rectangle is P=2*(a+b). In terms of b, let us write (a+2). So P=2*(a+a+2)=4a+4.

In (2) it is stated that d/a=13 or d=13a. From Pythagorean theorem d^2=a^2+b^2. Hence, b^2=168a^2 or b=2\sqrt{42}a. Finally, P=2*(a+b)=2*(a+2\sqrt{42}a)=2a+4\sqrt{42}a

5 0
3 years ago
In describing the expression, which term would not be used? Will choose brainliest.
Flauer [41]

Answer:

c) sum

Step-by-step explanation:

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4 0
3 years ago
You read online that the probability of being dealt four‑of‑a‑kind in a five‑card poker hand is 1 / 4165. Explain carefully what
Lapatulllka [165]

Answer:

There is about 4,164/4,165 chances of not getting getting a four of a kind. So, it is extremely unlikely or even borderline impossible in that situation to get a four of a kind.

<u>But in the long run, it can be increased only if you keep drawing.  So, the awnser would have to be. D  </u>

Step-by-step explanation:

A. It does mean that if you are dealt 4165 five‑card poker hands, one will be four‑of‑a‑kind.

B.  It does not mean that all will be four‑of‑a‑kind. The probability is actually saying that only on the 4165 the poker hand will you get a four‑of‑a‑kind, not just on any of the 4165 poker hands.

C. The probability is actually saying that in the long run, with a large number of five‑card poker hands, the fraction in which you will be dealt a four‑of‑a‑kind is 1 / 4165.

D. The chance you will be dealt four‑of‑a‑kind is 1 / 4165 only on the first hand. This chance will then increase with each new hand you are dealt until you eventually win

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3 years ago
What are the solutions to the quadratic equation x^2-16=0
FinnZ [79.3K]
I hope this helps you

3 0
3 years ago
For the binomial distribution with n=4 and p=0.25
Effectus [21]

Answer:

a.) .0469

b.) .9961

c.) .9492

Rounded these check below for full answers

Step-by-step explanation:

a.)

{4\choose3}*.25^3*(1-.25)=.046875

b.)

Porbability of at most 3 successes is equal to 1-p(4)

p(4)=

{4\choose4}*.25^4=.003690625

1-.003690625=.99609375

c.)

two or more failures is equa lto

p(0)+p(1)+p(2)=

{4\choose0}*.25^0*(1-.25)^4+{4\choose1}*.25^1(1-.25)^3+{4\choose2}*.25^2*(1-.25)^2=.94921875

4 0
3 years ago
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