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kari74 [83]
3 years ago
8

Seth is trying to find the unit price for a package of blank discs on sale at 10 for 5.49, his answer was $1.82 per disc is he c

orrect?
Mathematics
1 answer:
tatyana61 [14]3 years ago
5 0
Seth is incorrect, because on sale, 1 disc would cost about $0.55.
I figured this out by dividing 5.49 by 10, and got $0.549 which rounds to $0.55.


If this is incorrect, I am sorry, but I am 99.9% sure that I am correct.
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3x+2y=4 <br>8x+5y=9<br><br>Please solve using Cross multiplication method.​
ch4aika [34]

Hello, Please refer the photo attachment for your question's answer. The final answer is :-

<u>x= -2, y= 5</u>

Hope it helps you...

Answered by Benjemin

3 0
3 years ago
You have 6 pints of glaze. It takes 7/8 of a pint to glaze a bowl and 9/16 of a pint to glaze a plate.
son4ous [18]

Answer:

a. How many bowls could you glaze?

6 bowls

How many plates could you glaze?

10 plates

b. You want to glaze 5 bowls, and then use the rest for plates.

How many plates can you glaze?

2 plates

How much glaze will be left over?

8/9 of glaze would be left

c. How many of each object could you glaze so that there is no glaze left over? Explain how you found your answer.

4 4/23 bowls and 4 4/23 plates

Step-by-step explanation:

We are told in the question

Number of pints of glaze = 6 pints

Number of pints to glaze a bowl= 7/8 of pint

Number of pints to glaze a plate = 9/16 of a pint

a.

How many bowls could you glaze?

7/8 pint = 1 bowl

6 pints = x

Cross Multiply

x = 6 pints/ 7/8

= 6 × 8/7

= 48/7

= 6.8571428571 bowls

We can only glaze whole numbers of a bowl, hence, we can only glaze 6 bowls

How many plates could you glaze?

9/16 pint = 1 bowl

6 pints = y

y = 6 pints/ 9/16

= 6 × 16/9

= 10.666666667 plates

We can only glaze whole number of a plate, hence, we can only glaze 10 plates

b. You want to glaze 5 bowls, and then use the rest for plates.

1 bowl = 7/8 pints

5 bowls = z

Cross Multiply

z = 5 × 7/8pints

= 4 3/8 pints of glaze would be used for bowls

How many plates can you glaze?

The rest is for plates, hence:

The amount of glaze left for plates is calculated as:

6 pints - 4 3/8

1 5/8 pints of glaze would be left over to glaze plates.

So therefore,

9/16 pints = 1 plate

1 5/8 pints =

= 2 8/9

Hence we can only glaze 2 plates

How much glaze will be left over?

2 8/9 pints - 2 pints

= 8/9 pints of glaze.

c. How many of each object could you glaze so that there is no glaze left over?

We have 6 pints of glaze

Number of pints to glaze a bowl= 7/8 of pint

Number of pints to glaze a plate = 9/16 of a pint

Let the number of each objects be represented by x

7/8 × x + 9/16 × x = 6 pints

= 4 4/23 bowls and 4 4/23 plates

3 0
3 years ago
Which piecewise function is shown in the graph?
mash [69]

Based on the characteristics of <em>linear</em> and <em>piecewise</em> functions, the <em>piecewise</em> function f(x) = \left \{ {{-0.5\cdot x +1, \,x < 0} \atop {2\cdot x - 2, \,x \ge 0}} \right. is shown in the graph attached herein. (Correct choice: A)

<h3>How to determine a piecewise function</h3>

In this question we have a graph formed by two different <em>linear</em> functions. <em>Linear</em> functions are polynomials with grade 1 and which are described by the following formula:

y = m · x + b     (1)

Where:

  • x - Independent variable.
  • y - Dependent variable.
  • m - Slope
  • b - Intercept

By direct observation and by applying (1) we have the following <em>piecewise</em> function:

f(x) = \left \{ {{-0.5\cdot x +1, \,x < 0} \atop {2\cdot x - 2, \,x \ge 0}} \right.

Based on the characteristics of <em>linear</em> and <em>piecewise</em> functions, the <em>piecewise</em> function f(x) = \left \{ {{-0.5\cdot x +1, \,x < 0} \atop {2\cdot x - 2, \,x \ge 0}} \right. is shown in the graph attached herein. (Correct choice: A)

To learn more on piecewise functions: brainly.com/question/12561612

#SPJ1

3 0
2 years ago
Simplify 15.6 divided by negative 3. . (5 points)
worty [1.4K]

Answer: -5.2

Step-by-step explanation:

8 0
3 years ago
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there are 2.54 centimeters in 1 inch. there are 100 centimeters in 1 meter.questionto the nearest meter, how many meters are in
Gre4nikov [31]

There are 7 meters in 279 inches.

  • There are 2.54 centimeters in 1 inch.
  • There are 100 centimeters in 1 meter.
  • The number of inches is given to be 279.
  • Unit conversion is a multi-step procedure that includes multiplying or dividing by a numerical factor, determining the appropriate number of significant digits, and rounding.
  • First of all, we need to convert inches to centimeters.
  • 1 inch equals 2.54 centimeters.
  • 279 inches equals 2.54*279 centimeters.
  • 279 inches equals 708.66 centimeters.
  • Now, we need to convert these centimeters into meters.
  • Meters in 100 centimeters = 1
  • Meters in 1 centimeters = 1/100
  • Meters in 708.66 centimeters = (1/100)*708.66
  • Meters in 708.66 centimeters = 7.0866
  • Thus, there are approximately 7 meters in 279 inches.

To learn more about unit conversion, visit :

brainly.com/question/11543684

#SPJ4

8 0
2 years ago
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