All categories

3 years ago

Both Bond Bill and Bond Ted have 5.8 percent coupons, make semiannual payments,

Business

1 answer:

viva [34]3 years ago

5 0

Answer:

Percentage change in Bill Price = (91.8486 - 100) / 100 = -0.0815 or -8.15%

Percentage change in Bill Price = (78.1448 - 100) / 100 = -0.2186 or -21.86%

Percentage change in Bill Price = (109.0298 - 100) / 100 = 0.0903 or 9.03%

Percentage change in Bill Price = (132.0946 - 100) / 100 = 0.3209 or 32.09%

Explanation:

To calculate the percentage change in the price of both the bonds, we assume that the par value of both the bonds is $100 each.

To calculate the price of the bond today, we will use the formula for the price of the bond. We assume that the interest rate provided is stated in annual terms. As the bond is a semi annual bond, the coupon payment, number of periods and semi annual YTM will be,

Coupon Payment (C) both Bill and Ted = 100 * 0.058 * 6/12 = $2.9

Total periods (n) - Bill= 5 * 2 = 10

Total periods (n) - Ted= 25 * 2 = 50

As the bonds were previously price at par, the YTM or market interest rate would have been same as the coupon rate. Thus, the old market interest rate was 5.8%. Now as the interest rates have risen by 2% new interest rate will be = 5.8 + 2 = 7.8%

New r or YTM - both Bill and Ted = 7.8% * 6/12 = 3.9% or 0.039

The formula to calculate the price of the bonds today is attached.

Bond Price - Bill = 2.9 * [( 1 - (1+0.039)^-10) / 0.039] + 100 / (1+0.039)^10

Bond Price - Bill = $91.8486

Percentage change in Bill Price = (91.8486 - 100) / 100 = -0.0815 or -8.15%

Bond Price - Ted = 2.9 * [( 1 - (1+0.039)^-50) / 0.039] + 100 / (1+0.039)^50

Bond Price - Ted = $78.1448

Percentage change in Bill Price = (78.1448 - 100) / 100 = -0.2186 or -21.86%

As the bonds were previously price at par, the YTM or market interest rate would have been same as the coupon rate. Thus, the old market interest rate was 5.8%. Now as the interest rates have fallen by 2% new interest rate will be = 5.8 - 2 = 3.8%

New r or YTM - both Bill and Ted = 3.8% * 6/12 = 1.9% or 0.019

The formula to calculate the price of the bonds today is attached.

Bond Price - Bill = 2.9 * [( 1 - (1+0.019)^-10) / 0.019] + 100 / (1+0.019)^10

Bond Price - Bill = $109.0298

Percentage change in Bill Price = (109.0298 - 100) / 100 = 0.0903 or 9.03%

Bond Price - Ted = 2.9 * [( 1 - (1+0.019)^-50) / 0.019] + 100 / (1+0.019)^50

Bond Price - Ted = $132.0946

Percentage change in Bill Price = (132.0946 - 100) / 100 = 0.3209 or 32.09%

You might be interested in

Which of the following changes in the loanable funds market will decrease the equilibrium real interest rate?

LuckyWell [14K]

Answer:

The answer is Option C

Explanation:

Any event that would either decrease the demand for loanable funds or increase the supply of loanable funds will decrease the equilibrium interest rates. Supply of loanable funds is affect by the amount of national savings. National savings in turn, is the sum of private savings, public saving and net capital inflow.

In option C, capital inflows are increasing. This means that there would be an excess supply of money in the economy which can be converted into loanable funds. This would, therefore, push the supply curve to the right thereby reducing the real interest rate equilibrium.

7 0

3 years ago

Bill smith economic influences

dusya [7]

I don't really know of Bill Smith but I know Adam

Smith's best - known ideas formed the basis of economic theory , including the invisible hand theory ( the idea that free - markets coordinate themselves ) , the division of labor ( the idea that people should specialize in specific tasks ) , and the measurement of economic activity ( Gross Domestic Product ) .

Please follow me and Mark as brainlest.

Thanks :-)

7 0

3 years ago

Cartier corporation currently sells its products for $50 per unit. the company's variable costs are $20 per unit. fixed expenses

charle [14.2K]

The answer is 40%, in which the following are given: the Variable expense is equal to 20 dollars per unit and Sales is equal to 50 dollars per unit. Use the formula Variable Expense Ratio = Variable Expenses / Sales to get the answer.

Variable Expense Ratio = Variable Expenses / Sales
Variable Expense Ratio = 20 dollars per unit / 50 dollars per unit
Variable Expense Ratio = 40 %

The variable expense ratio is an expression of variable production costs of the company as a percentage of sales, calculated as variable expense divided by total sales. It compares a cost that alters with levels of production to the number of revenues generated by production.

8 0

3 years ago

Some companies want to get their products into as many outlets as possible, understanding that the more exposure a product gets,

azamat

Answer:

Mass Distribution

Explanation:

Mass distribution strategy is one of three approaches to distribution in marketing. It is engaged where an organisation seeks to sell its goods to as many customers as possible. Intermediaries with very wide market base are usually the targets for such organisations.

7 0

3 years ago

Read 2 more answers

Butte sold a machine to a machine dealer for $50,000. Butte bought the machine for $55,000 several year ago and has a claimed $1

pishuonlain [190]

Answer:

c. $7,500 ordinary gain

Explanation:

Depreciated value of Machine = $55,000 - $12,500

= $ 42,500

Sale price of Machine = $ 50,000

Gain on sale of Asset = $ 50,000 - $ 42,500

= $ 7,500

Therefore, The amount and character of Butte's gain or loss is $7,500 ordinary gain.

6 0

3 years ago