Answer:
Proposal A
3.75 years
Proposal B
3.375 years
Explanation:
<u>Proposal A</u>
Payback = 3.75 years
Year Cash Inflow Initial Investment Balance Year Count
0 0 1,050,000
1 $280,000 770,000 1
2 $280,000 490,000 2
3 $280,000 210,000 3
4 $280,000 0 *3.75
* 1050,0000 / 280,000 = 3.75 years
<u>Proposal B</u>
Payback = 3.375 years
Year Cash Inflow Initial Investment Balance Year Count
0 0 1,050,000
1 $350,000 700,000 1
2 $3150,000 385,000 2
3 $280,000 105,000 3
4 $280,000 0 *3.375
* ( 3 + ( 105,000 / 280,000 ) ) = 3.75 years
If there is an insufficient contribution margin to cover fixed expenses, there will always be an occurrence of a net loss.
<h3>What is a Contribution Margin?</h3>
The contribution margin can be expressed in gross income terms. After subtracting the variable element of the firm's expenditures, it indicates the extra money gained for each product sold.
The contribution margin is calculated by subtracting the selling price/unit from the variable cost/unit.
This metric displays how much a certain product adds to the company's total earnings. It displays the share of revenue that helps to pay the firm's fixed costs and gives one approach to illustrate the profit potential of a certain product supplied by a company.
Therefore, If there is an insufficient contribution margin to cover fixed expenses, there will always be an occurrence of a net loss.
Learn more about contribution margin here:
brainly.com/question/24881206
Answer:
d. Debt holders get $0 mil. under the unlevered plan vs. 0.6075 mil. under the levered plan
Explanation:
interests paid to debt holders = $13,500,000 x 10% = $1,350,000
generally, interest revenue is taxed as ordinary revenue = corporate income tax rate (if debt holder is a business) or personal income tax (if debt holder is an individual).
under the first plan, debt holders get nothing because there is no outstanding debt since the company is an all equity firm.
under the second plan, if the personal tax rate on interest income is 55%, which is really high, the debt holders will earn $1,350,000 x (1 - 55%) = $607,500
Answer:
There is a loss on buying from outside supplier ,Peach's offer should not be accepted.
Explanation:
Variable cost is a cost that varies with number of units produced or sold so it is always a relevant cost while making decision.
Fixed cost remains constant irrespective of number of units so it is a irrelevant cost unless avoidable.So in the given case ,fixed cost $70 is irrelevant since same will be incurred whether purchased or manufactured.
Incremental savings
Saving in variable cost 220
saving in fixed cost 25
Total saving 245
less: Incremental cost (270)
Incremental profit /(loss) on buying from outside supplier (25)
Total loss 25*5900= -147500
Therefore, There is a loss on buying from outside supplier ,Peach's offer should not be accepted.