Answer: 1.67
Explanation:
From the question, we are informed that the currency drain ratio is 0.5 of deposits and the banks' reserve ratio is 0.4.
The money multiplier is calculated as:
(1 + the currency drain ratio)/( the reserve ratio + the currency drain ratio)
= (1 + 0.5)/(0.5 + 0.4)
= 1.5/0.9
= 1.67
Therefore, the money multiplier will be 1.67.
Answer:
d. $28,700.
Explanation:
The computation of the budgeted selling cost for the given month is shown below:
= Fixed selling cost + variable selling cost
= $20,000 + $290,000 × 3%
= $20,000 $+ $8,700
= $28,700
We simply applied the above formula so that the correct value could come
And, the same is to be considered
Hence, the correct option is d. $28,700
Answer:
Liquidity risk is the inability to quickly sell a bond for its full value. This risk exists primarily in thinly traded issues. Default risk is the likelihood the issuer will default on its bond obligations and is the basis for bond ratings.
Liquidity is a prime determiner of yield spreads, explaining up to half of the cross-sectional variation in spread levels and up to two times the cross-sectional variation in spread changes that is explained by the effects of credit rating alone.
Liquidity risk Liquidity refers to the investor's ability to sell a bond quickly and at an efficient price, as reflected in the bid-ask spread. High-yield bonds can sometimes be less liquid than investment-grade bonds, depending on the issuer and the market conditions at any given time.
(If some parts overlap/relate to the exactly to other parts, I'm sorry. But there ya go !)
Answer: Internal reporting involves the compilation of financial and operational information on a frequent basis, which is distributed to those within an organization who can use it to improve performance. ... Internal reports are not shared with anyone outside of the firm.
