Answer:
I have taken 2 business classes for 2 straight years and i passed them both with an A. I am not 100% sure if i am correct because i don't remember everything we learned but I do believe that organization management and marketing and sales strategy are the two best answers.
Explanation:
competition isn't something you would necessarily put in a business plan but the other two are.
Purely domestic firms will be at a disadvantage to men's in the event of market disequilibria because domestic firms lack comparative data from its own sources.
<h3>What are domestic firms?</h3>
Most or all of the operations of domestic companies are conducted within the US. They might export goods or import supplies, but these activities often make up a modest portion of overall corporate activity. US securities regulations primarily apply to domestic enterprises. Typically, their financial reports are created using widely accepted accounting principles (GAAP).
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Answer:
open market operation
Explanation:
The Federal Reserve purchases and sells treasury securities on the open market in order to regulate the supply of money that is on deposit in banks, and therefore available to loan out to businesses and consumers. It purchases Treasury securities to increase the supply of money and sells them to reduce the supply of money
Answer:
b. surpluses of the commodity will develop
Explanation:
A price ceiling is when the government or an agency of the government sets the maximum price for a good or service.
If price ceiling is set above equilibrium price, suppliers would increase supply while consumers would reduce demand. This would lead to an excess supply and surplus in the economy.
When price ceiling is set above equilibrium price, it is known as a non binding price ceiling.
I hope my answer helps you
Answer:
Option (C) is correct.
Explanation:
We have to use MM proposition that cost of equity will change itself in such a manner so that it can take care of its debt.
Cost of equity:
= WACC of all equity firm + (WACC of all equity - Cost of debt ) × (Debt -to-equity ratio)
At the beginning, when there was no debt,
WACC = cost of equity = 12 %
Levered cost of equity:
= 12% + ( 12% - 6%) × 0.5
= 15%
Therefore, Rearden's levered cost of equity would be closest to 15%.
