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bagirrra123 [75]
3 years ago
8

Please help me idk this

Mathematics
2 answers:
LenaWriter [7]3 years ago
7 0

The answer is 1 3/8 yards.

Fantom [35]3 years ago
5 0
She has around 1.5 yards left
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Are constants like terms?
aniked [119]

Answer:

yes they are

Step-by-step explanation:

7 0
3 years ago
What is the value of the expression shown below? 2 over 3 to the power of 2 + 5 × 2 − 4 (4 points)
kondor19780726 [428]

Answer: It equals 8.

Step-by-step explanation:

6 0
2 years ago
PLZ HELP!!!
likoan [24]

Answer:

The rental fee is 25

Step-by-step explanation:

Total cost = rental fee plus cost per hours * number hours

t = f + 8*h  where t = total cost, f = rental fee, h = hours

73 = f + 8*6

73 = f+ 48

Subtract 48 from each side

73 - 48 = f+48-48

25 = f

The rental fee is 25

6 0
3 years ago
3. Let A, B, C be sets and let ????: ???? → ???? and ????: ???? → ????be two functions. Prove or find a counterexample to each o
Fiesta28 [93]

Answer / Explanation

The question is incomplete. It can be found in search engines. However, kindly find the complete question below.

Question

(1) Give an example of functions f : A −→ B and g : B −→ C such that g ◦ f is injective but g is not  injective.

(2) Suppose that f : A −→ B and g : B −→ C are functions and that g ◦ f is surjective. Is it true  that f must be surjective? Is it true that g must be surjective? Justify your answers with either a  counterexample or a proof

Answer

(1) There are lots of correct answers. You can set A = {1}, B = {2, 3} and C = {4}. Then define f : A −→ B by f(1) = 2 and g : B −→ C by g(2) = 4 and g(3) = 4. Then g is not  injective (since both 2, 3 7→ 4) but g ◦ f is injective.  Here’s another correct answer using more familiar functions.

Let f : R≥0 −→ R be given by f(x) = √

x. Let g : R −→ R be given by g(x) = x , 2  . Then g is not  injective (since g(1) = g(−1)) but g ◦ f : R≥0 −→ R is injective since it sends x 7→ x.

NOTE: Lots of groups did some variant of the second example. I took off points if they didn’t  specify the domain and codomain though. Note that the codomain of f must equal the domain of

g for g ◦ f to make sense.

(2) Answer

Solution: There are two questions in this problem.

Must f be surjective? The answer is no. Indeed, let A = {1}, B = {2, 3} and C = {4}.  Then define f : A −→ B by f(1) = 2 and g : B −→ C by g(2) = 4 and g(3) = 4. We see that  g ◦ f : {1} −→ {4} is surjective (since 1 7→ 4) but f is certainly not surjective.  Must g be surjective? The answer is yes, here’s the proof. Suppose that c ∈ C is arbitrary (we  must find b ∈ B so that g(b) = c, at which point we will be done). Since g ◦ f is surjective, for the  c we have already fixed, there exists some a ∈ A such that c = (g ◦ f)(a) = g(f(a)). Let b := f(a).

Then g(b) = g(f(a)) = c and we have found our desired b.  Remark: It is good to compare the answer to this problem to the answer to the two problems

on the previous page.  The part of this problem most groups had the most issue with was the second. Everyone should  be comfortable with carefully proving a function is surjective by the time we get to the midterm.

3 0
3 years ago
Pls help :Find the missing side or angle.<br> Round to the nearest tenth.
Nitella [24]

Answer:

C° = 71.6056

Step-by-step explanation:

Law of Cosines: c² = a² + b² - 2abcosC°

Step 1: Plug in known variables

29² = 30² + 15² - 2(30)(15)cosC°

Step 2: Evaluate

841 = 900 + 225 - 900cosC°

-59 = 225 - 900cosC°

-284 = -900cosC°

71/225 = cosC°

cos⁻¹(71/225) = C°

C° = 71.6056

And we have our answer!

7 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
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