it is a grade point average
Answer:
The Payback Period from non discounted cash flows is 2 Years and 8 months
Step-by-step explanation:
With an initial outlay of $1,000,000
and Cash inflows for 4 years consecutively of $500,000 + $300,000 + $300,000 + $300,000
Pay back Period = the Period where Initial Outlay minus Cash Inflows equal Zero
= 1,000,000 - 500,000 (yr 1) - 300,000 (yr 2) - 200,000 (2/3 of Year 3) = 0
Pay back Period therefore is equal to 2 years & 8 months.
Answer:
last two both should be = 180
Step-by-step explanation:
Answer:
a) 
b)
deviations
c) 
d) For this case since we have that z>2 we can consider this value as unusual, since is outside of the interval considered usual.
Step-by-step explanation:
Assuming this complete question : "Helen Mirren was 61 when she earned her Oscar-winning Best Actress award. The Oscar-winning Best Actresses have a mean age of 35.8 years and a standard deviation of 11.3 years"
a) What is the difference between Helen Mirren’s age and the mean age?
For this case we can do this:

b) How many standard deviations is that?
We just need to take the difference and divide by the deviation and we got:
deviations
c) Convert Helen Mirren’s age to a z score.
The z score is defined as:

And if we replace the values given we got:

d) If we consider “usual” ages to be those that convert to z scores between –2 and 2, is Helen Mirren’s age usual or unusual?
For this case since we have that z>2 we can consider this value as unusual, since is outside of the interval considered usual.