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yKpoI14uk [10]
3 years ago
14

EA5.

Business
1 answer:
katrin [286]3 years ago
6 0

Answer:

$4,500

Explanation:

Given that,

Beginning balance of work in process = $4,000

Ending balance of work in process = $3,000

Direct labor:

= Cost of goods manufactured + Ending balance of work in process - Beginning balance of work in process - Material used - Overhead applied

= $7,500 + $3,000 - $4,000 - $1,500 - $500

= $4,500

Note:

Table is missing from the question so I have attached the table.

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Warp Manufacturing Corporation uses a standard cost system to collect costs related to the production of its ski lift chairs. Wa
Flura [38]

Answer:

A. $37,400 unfavorable

Explanation:

With regards to the above, variable overhead spending variance is computed as

= (Actual hours × Actual rate) - (Actual hours × standard rate)

= $649,400 - ( 34,000 × $18)

= $649,400 - $612,000

= $37,400 unfavorable

Therefore, Warp's variable overhead spending variance for the month of September is $37,400 unfavorable

7 0
2 years ago
_____ is a process that helps organizations identify, select, organize, disseminate, transfer, and apply expertise that are part
Drupady [299]
The right answer for the question that is being asked and shown above is that: "E. Online analytical processing" It is a process that helps organizations identify, select, organize, disseminate, transfer, and apply expertise that are part of the organization’s memory and typically reside inside the organization in an unstructured manner. This is called the o<span>nline analytical processing</span>
3 0
3 years ago
Cost of Debt. Micro Spinoffs Inc. issued 20-year debt a year ago at par value with a coupon rate of 8%, paid annually. Today, th
stealth61 [152]

Answer:

5.925%

Explanation:

For computing the cost of debt, first we have to determine the YTM by using the Rate formula that is shown in the attachment

Given that,  

Present value = $1,050

Assuming figure - Future value or Face value = $1,000  

PMT = 1,000 × 8%  = $80

NPER = 20 year - 1 year = 19 year

= Rate(NPER;PMT;-PV;FV;type)  

The present value come in negative  

So, after solving this,  

1. The pretax cost of debt is 7.50%

2. And, the after tax cost of debt would be

= Pretax cost of debt × ( 1 - tax rate)

= 7.50% × ( 1 - 0.21)

= 5.925%

8 0
3 years ago
This information relates to Cheyenne Real Estate Agency.
gregori [183]

Answer and Explanation:

The Journal entry is shown below:-

1. Cash Dr,                            $31,770

       To Common stock               $31,770

(Being issuance of shares for cash is recorded)

2. No Journal Entry is required

3. Office furniture Dr,          $3,740

       To Accounts payable           $3,740

(Being purchase of office furniture on credit is recorded)

4. Accounts receivable     $10,430

            To service revenue        $10,430

(Being customer billed for service is recorded)

5. Cash                                $185  

            To credit revenue       $185

(Being cash received for service is recorded)

6. Accounts payable $800  

                To cash                $800

(Being cash paid for office furniture purchased is recorded)

7. Salaries expense Dr, $3560  

               To cash                $3560

(Being salary paid is recorded)

5 0
3 years ago
In its statement of cash flows issued for the year ending September 30, Berne Company reported a net cash inflow from operating
Dafna1 [17]

Answer:

B. $29,000

Explanation:

The cashflow from operating activities is calculated as below:

Cashflow from operating activities = Net income + Depreciation - Working capital investment

                                                          = Net income + Depreciation - (Change in inventories + Change in account receivables - Change in account payables)

Putting all the number together, we have:

123,000 = Net income + 38,000 - [(-27,000) + 31,000 - 48,000 - 12,000),

Solve the equation we get Net income = 29,000.

5 0
3 years ago
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