Answer:
Ending Inventory $ 64,000
Explanation:
To define the final inventory of the company it's necessary to find the cost of good of the period.
As the company had a 43% of gross profit, it means that for every dollar of sales we have 0,43 dollar of Gross Profit, with this value is possible to know the total cost of the goods sold during the period, that it's the difference between Sales Revenue and Gross Profit.
Total Sales Revenue had to be the net value after returns and discounts as it's detailed.
Income Statement
Sales revenue $ 300,000
Cost of goods sold -$ 171,000
Gross Profit $ 129,000 43%
Beginning Inventory $ 60,000
Purchases $ 175,000
Cost of goods sold -$ 171,000
Ending Inventory $ 64,000
Answer: Matched pairs design
Explanation:
A matched pairs design is a type of study used when 2 treaments are present in an experiment. The individuals in the design can be divided into pairs using a blocking variable, and each pair can then be allocated to treatments at random. This is thus a special type of randomized block design.
In this case the blocking variable can be the various urban areas as 1968 is matched against 1972. Each city can be compared based on 2 measurements. From their each individual can be grouped into pairs and allocated to different treatments.
Answer:
a. The company must have had net income equal to zero in 2009.
Explanation:
If on its 2008 balance sheet, Sherman Books showed a balance of retained earnings equal to $510 million, and on its 2009 balance sheet, the balance of retained earnings was also equal to $510 million; then what is true is that the company must have had net income equal to zero in 2009.
Retained earnings is the profit amount or net income left over and taken back into the business after it has paid out dividends to its shareholders.
However it is unlikely that the company will pay out the entire amount it earns in a particular year but a percentage of earnings.
In the case of Sherman, it is unlikely that the company made a profit of $200 million and paid out every bit as dividends to shareholders but what is most likely is that there was no profit made for retention in 2009
Answer:
The ending balance in the Allowance for Bad Debts is 20,500 CREDIT
Explanation:
The ending balance of Allowance for bad debts would be the 2.5% of sales
The adjustment is made to get the allowance for Bad Debt match the estimate uncollectible ammounts.
Notice it state <em>"company adjusted for bad debt expense"</em>
This means<u> it debit this account as much as it needed to be</u> to make allowance match the estimate allowance.
The write-off are transaction durign the period. They are irrelevant
So the ending balance is:
<em>2.5% of credit sales of 820,000 = $20,500</em>
It is important to remember that <u>Allowance is a counter-asset account</u>. His <em>normal balance is credit</em>, so the<u> final balance is credit.</u>
Answer:
the minimum price it should charge is $40 per unit.
Explanation:
Minimum Transfer Price = Variable Costs - Internal Savings + Opportunity Cost
<em>Note : Division A has capacity available to meet B's requirements therefore there is no opportunity cost</em>.
There are Internal savings of $5 as A's variable costs will be $5 less per unit.
Minimum Transfer Price = $45 - $5
= $40
