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Alla [95]
3 years ago
8

2(4+9w) what is the answer

Mathematics
2 answers:
Maksim231197 [3]3 years ago
7 0

Answer:

The answer would be 8+18w

Step-by-step explanation:

In this case we would be using distributive property. This is where you take the outside number (2) and multiply to each of the terms in the expression.

First, I would multipy the 2 and the 4, giving me 8. Then, I would multiply 2 and 9w, giving me 18w. Since the terms are not alike (no like terms), we would leave it as it is with:

8 + 18w

If you liked my answer, pls consider it for a brainliest!

EleoNora [17]3 years ago
6 0

Answer:

8+18w

Step-by-step explanation:

2(4+9w)

Distribute the 2

2*4 + 2*9w

8+18w

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AB is perpendicular to [GH] and GH is [A]

Step-by-step explanation:

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You are at a stall at a fair where you have to throw a ball at a target. There are two versions of the game. In the first
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Answer:

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And the probability of loss with the first wersion is 0.729

P(Y=0)=(5C0)(0.05)^0 (1-0.05)^{5-0}=0.774

And the probability of loss with the first wersion is 0.774

As we can see the best alternative is the first version since the probability of loss is lower than the probability of loss on version 2.

Step-by-step explanation:

Previous concepts

The binomial distribution is a "DISCRETE probability distribution that summarizes the probability that a value will take one of two independent values under a given set of parameters. The assumptions for the binomial distribution are that there is only one outcome for each trial, each trial has the same probability of success, and each trial is mutually exclusive, or independent of each other".

Solution to the problem

Alternative 1

Let X the random variable of interest, on this case we now that:

X \sim Binom(n=3, p=0.1)

The probability mass function for the Binomial distribution is given as:

P(X)=(nCx)(p)^x (1-p)^{n-x}

Where (nCx) means combinatory and it's given by this formula:

nCx=\frac{n!}{(n-x)! x!}

We can find the probability of loss like this P(X=0) and if we find this probability we got this:

P(X=0)=(3C0)(0.1)^0 (1-0.1)^{3-0}=0.729

And the probability of loss with the first wersion is 0.729

Alternative 2

Let Y the random variable of interest, on this case we now that:

Y \sim Binom(n=5, p=0.05)

The probability mass function for the Binomial distribution is given as:

P(Y)=(nCy)(p)^y (1-p)^{n-y}

Where (nCx) means combinatory and it's given by this formula:

nCy=\frac{n!}{(n-y)! y!}

We can find the probability of loss like this P(Y=0) and if we find this probability we got this:

P(Y=0)=(5C0)(0.05)^0 (1-0.05)^{5-0}=0.774

And the probability of loss with the first wersion is 0.774

As we can see the best alternative is the first version since the probability of loss is lower than the probability of loss on version 2.

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Step-by-step explanation:

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