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agasfer [191]
2 years ago
13

What is the appropriate accounting treatment for the value assigned to in-process research and development acquired in a busines

s combination?
Business
2 answers:
Vera_Pavlovna [14]2 years ago
6 0

Answer:

Capitalize as an asset.

Explanation:

motikmotik2 years ago
3 0

Answer:

The correct answer is: Capitalize as an asset.

Explanation:

Capitalize is an accounting term that describes a company's method of measuring the expense of the assets recorded. Many businesses have procedures on how and when to report purchases and costs as assets or expenses. These are listed on the Balance Sheet as an asset and depreciated as expenses are capitalized. Capitalized expenses make their way to the Income Statement by depreciation.

Thus<em>, the purchases and costs of in-process research and development is capitalized as an asset.</em>

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Assume you pay $24,000 today in exchange for an annuity with monthly payments, an APR of 6.75 percent, and a life of 15 years.Wh
Fed [463]

Answer:

$212.38

Explanation:

In this question, we use the PMT formula which is shown in the spreadsheet.  

The NPER represents the time period.

Given that,  

Present value = $24,000

Future value = $0

Rate of interest = 6.75% ÷ 12 months = 0.5625%

NPER = 15 years × 12 months = 180 months

The formula is shown below:

= PMT(Rate;NPER;-PV;FV;type)

The present value come in negative

So, after solving this, the answer would be $212.38

4 0
3 years ago
A country produces only one good. It produced​ 5,000 units of the good during Year 1 and​ 6,000 units of the good in Year 2. The
Veseljchak [2.6K]

Answer:

.A) $1, 920,000

Explanation:

Gross domestic product is the sum of all final goods and services produced in an economy within a given period which is usually a year.

Nominal GDP is the GDP of country using current year prices

Nominal GDP = current year price × quantity

(6000 × 320) = $1,920,000

I hope my answer helps you

3 0
3 years ago
The following labor standards have been established for a particular product:
andrey2020 [161]

Answer:

Results are below.

Explanation:

<u>To calculate the direct labor rate and efficiency variance, we need to use the following formulas:</u>

Direct labor rate variance= (Standard Rate - Actual Rate)*Actual Quantity

Direct labor rate variance= (17.7 - 17.8)*7,600

Direct labor rate variance= $760 unfavorable

Actual rate= 135,280/7,600= $17.8

Direct labor time (efficiency) variance= (Standard Quantity - Actual Quantity)*standard rate

Direct labor time (efficiency) variance= (4*1,800 - 7,600)*17.7

Direct labor time (efficiency) variance= $7,080 unfavorable

4 0
3 years ago
A young chef is considering opening his own sushi bar. To do so, he would have to quit his current job, which pays $20,000 a yea
iren [92.7K]

Answer:

$52,000 is the correct answer.

Explanation:

8 0
3 years ago
23 divided by 33<br><img src="https://tex.z-dn.net/?f=23%20%5Cdiv%20335" id="TexFormula1" title="23 \div 335" alt="23 \div 335"
xxMikexx [17]

23/33=0.6969697

23/335=0.06865672

4 0
3 years ago
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