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Andrews [41]
3 years ago
5

A comparative advantage is the ability of a country to produce a particular good or service at a lower ____________ than another

country. a. opportunity cost b. production cost c. absolute advantage d. manufacturing advantage Please select the best answers from the choices provided. A B C D
Business
1 answer:
kotykmax [81]3 years ago
5 0

Answer

Hi,

Correct answer option is {a}

Explanation

Comparative advantage occurs when a nation produces a good or service for a lower opportunity cost than other countries. In this case, the advantages of buying their goods or services will surpass the disadvantages. This is to say that country may not be the best nation in production of a particular good or service but the good or service offers a low opportunity cost for other nations to import. A good example is oil-producing nations who have a comparative advantage in chemicals because the oil is locally produced thus a cheap raw material for chemicals as compared to nations without oil production.

Best of Luck!

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When there is a shortage, rationing is a method of distributing goods by using prices.
Cerrena [4.2K]
True, rationing is the selling of scarce goods or services in events such as war. Items are distributed in fairness to each citizen and they have to take a ration book to say what they have or haven't had and how much of it they have had.
6 0
3 years ago
The current price of the common stock of Internet Enterprises is $100. Over the course of a year, the stock's price will either
KATRIN_1 [288]

Answer:

Current value of this newly issued option on Internet Enterprises= $25

Explanation:

Risk free rate for 6 month or period 1= (1000-909.09)/909.09=10%

Risk free rate for 1 year= (1000-826.45)/826.45=21%

Hence, risk free rate for period 2= (1+21%)/(1+10%)-1=10%

Now, Risk free rate factor for period 1 (R1)=1+10%=1.1

Risk Free rate factor for period 2 (R2)=1+10%=1.1

Upward price factor for a period(u)=(1+100%)^(1/2)=1.414

Downward price factor for a period(d)=(1-50%)^(1/2)=0.707

Probability of upward price= (R-d)/(u-d)=(1.1-0.707)/(1.414-0.707)=0.55

Probability of downward price= 1-0.55=0.45

After period 1: Upward price=100*1.414=141.4 with probability 55%

Downward price =100*0.707=70.7 with probability 45%

After period 2:

Upward Price will be =141.4*1.414=200 with probability= 55%*55%=30.25%

Downward price will be=70.7*0.707=50 with probability=45%*45%=20.25%

Mid price will be = 141.4*0.707 or 70.7*1.414=100 with probability =2*45%*55%=49.5%

Now, the highest price the stock can go is $200 with probability 30.25% and it was issued at $100

Hence, expected payoff of the option=30.25%*(200-100)=$30.25

So, current value of the newly issued option= 30.25/(1+21%)=$25

4 0
3 years ago
The Corner Bakery has a bond issue outstanding that matures in 7 years. The bonds pay interest semi-annually. Currently, the bon
MaRussiya [10]

Answer:

Ans. The after tax cost of this bond is 2.09%

Explanation:

Hi, first we need to establish the cash flow of the bond, so we can find the after tax cost of the bond. After we find the after tax cash flow of the bond, we must use the IRR function of MS Excel to find the semi-annual cost of this debt, but, all after tax debts should be presented in annual basis. Let me walk you through the process. First, let me show you how it should look.

Face Value      100  

price              101,4  

years                7 years  

Coupon                9%  

Coupon                4,5% semi-annually  

tax                      30%  

   

Per       Cash Flow After Tax  

0                 101,4 101,4  

1                   -4,5 -3,15  

2                   -4,5 -3,15  

3                   -4,5 -3,15  

4                   -4,5 -3,15  

5                   -4,5 -3,15  

6                   -4,5 -3,15  

7                   -4,5 -3,15  

8                   -4,5 -3,15  

9                  -4,5 -3,15  

10                  -4,5 -3,15  

11                  -4,5 -3,15  

12                  -4,5 -3,15  

13                  -4,5 -3,15  

14               -104,5 -73,15  

   

Cost of Debt 1,04% semi-annually

Cost of Debt 2,09% annually

Ok, now, as you can see, there are 14 periods, that is because the coupon is paid semi-annually, the way to find the cash flow (I mean, the bond´s coupon) is:

Coupon (semi-annual)=(Face Value)x\frac{0.09}{2} =4.5

At the end (period 14), we need to add the face value and the coupon, that is $100+$4.5=$104.5

Now, to find the value of the third column (after-tax cost), we do the following.

After-tax-Cost=Couponx(1-taxes)=4.5(1-0.3)=3.15\\

Now, consider this, you are receiving 101.4 for every 100 of debt, that means that you are receiving more money than the emission value, and paying interests over 100 instead of 101.4, that is why we have to use the IRR excel function to find out the semi-annual cost of debt. That is, 1.04%.

Now, to make this an effective annual rate, we calculate it like this.

EffectiveAnnualRate=(1+semi-annual Rate)^{\frac{1}{2} }  -1=(1+0.0104)^{\frac{1}{2} } -1=0.0209

Finally, the after-tax cost of this debt is = 2.09%

Best of luck.

6 0
3 years ago
How long should an electronic cover letter be?
Delicious77 [7]
<span>Approximately 150 words.</span>
3 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
Pls help!!! will give brainly!!!
enyata [817]

Answer:

I believe this would be in the Engineering and technology pathway.

Explanation:

Examples of someone in a engineering and technology pathway are people like Biomedical engineers so it makes sense!

6 0
2 years ago
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