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Bingel [31]
3 years ago
9

Ryan spent 1/4 of his paycheck and gift card on a new TV. The gift card was worth $150. The TV's total cost was $1800 Which equa

tion can determine the value, p, the amount of his paycheck?
Mathematics
1 answer:
Mumz [18]3 years ago
6 0

Answer:

$300

Step-by-step explanation:

1/4of $1800=$450-$150=$300

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What are the first and last deciles of the standard Normal distribution?
aliya0001 [1]

My best Guess is

1.282 for upper . , -1.282 for lower.

Hope this Helps

-Dante

5 0
3 years ago
Solve the following triangle. Given A=51 degrees b=40 c=45
STALIN [3.7K]

Answer:

a=36.87\ units

B=57.47^o

C=71.53^o

Step-by-step explanation:

step 1

Find the length side a

Applying the law of cosines

a^2=b^2+c^2-2(b)(c)cos(A)

substitute the given values

a^2=40^2+45^2-2(40)(45)cos(51^o)

a^2=1,359.4466

a=36.87\ units

step 2

Find the measure of angle B

Applying the law of sines

\frac{a}{sin(A)} =\frac{b}{sin(B)}

substitute the given values

\frac{36.87}{sin(51^o)} =\frac{40}{sin(B)}

sin(B)=\frac{sin(51^o)}{36.87}{40}

B=sin^{-1}(\frac{sin(51^o)}{36.87}{40})=57.47^o

step 3

Find the measure of angle C

Remember that the sum of the interior angles in any triangle must be equal to 180 degrees

so

A+B+C=180^o

substitute the given values

51^o+57.47^o+C=180^o

108.47^o+C=180^o

C=180^o-108.47^o=71.53^o

5 0
3 years ago
Is the value of 4 in 46,395 36 times the value of 4 in 14,906
expeople1 [14]
Yesthe value of 4 in 46,395 36 times the value of 4 in 14,906
4 0
3 years ago
There are 12 inches in 1 foot and 5,280 feet in 1 mile. Jada ran 34 miles.
zvonat [6]

For this case we must convert 34 miles to feet and inches.

34 miles to feet:

34 miles * \frac {5280} {1} * \frac {feet} {miles} = 179,520 feet

Jada runs 179,520 feet

34 miles to inches:

34 miles * \frac {5280} {1} * \frac {feet} {miles} * \frac {12} {1} * \frac {inches} {foot} = 2,154,240 inches

Jada runs 2,154,240 inches

Answer:

Jada ran 179,520 feet

Jada ran 2,154,240 inches

3 0
3 years ago
Your 6 1/4 year investment of $40,000 at 14% compounded quarterly is worth how much now?
KengaRu [80]
The formula to be used here is:

F = P(1+i)ⁿ
where 
P = 40000
n = 6 1/4 years

Let's find i first which has to be converted to compounded annually.

i = (1 + r/m)^m - 1
where m = 4 because there are 4 quarters in 1 yr; and r is the given 0.14.
i = (1 + 0.14/4)⁴ - 1 = 0.1475

Thus,
F = (40000)(1+0.1475)^(6 1/4)
<em>F = $94,517.96</em>
4 0
3 years ago
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