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max2010maxim [7]
3 years ago
15

If xis a random number between 0 and 1, then we can use xto simulate a variable that is uniformly distributed between 100 and 20

0 using the formula:
a.100 + x
b. 200 −x
c. 100 + 100x
d. 200x
Business
1 answer:
Eva8 [605]3 years ago
6 0

Answer:

c. 100 + 100x

Explanation:

Given that X is a random number between 0 and 1. To simulate X so that it is uniformly distributed between 100 and 200 will be done by using the formula of 100+100X.

If X = 0, 100+100X will result in the output as 100

If X = 0.5, 100+100X will result in the output as 150

If X = 1, 100+100X will result in the output as 200

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CRANE COMPANY Adjusted Trial Balance January 31, 2020 Debit Credit Supplies $900 Prepaid Insurance 1,800 Salaries and Wages Paya
GREYUIT [131]

Answer:

beginning supplies 1,600

Explanation:

With the following identity we will sovle for beginning supplies:

beginning + purchases = ending + expense

the left side are the input of supplies

and the right side are the output

we will plug into the formula and solve for beginning supplies

beg + 3,400 = 900 + 900

beg = 3,400 - 900 - 900 =  1,600

4 0
3 years ago
One problem in the interstate trucking industry is the number of trucks that return empty after making a delivery. There is a we
balu736 [363]

Answer:

Yield management pricing

Explanation:

Yield management pricing is the charging of different prices for a given set of capacity at a specific time in order to maximize revenue. This is based on the demand and supply in the market and is very common in industries such as airlines, hotels and resorts. When there is very high demand for airline seats, prices for them are high. However, if some of those passengers decided to refund their tickets, close to departure and the flight would be taking off soon, instead of flying with empty seats and no revenue from them, the airline would decide to sell these same seats at a cheaper rate in order to gain some revenue. This is a form of revenue maximization.

6 0
3 years ago
Explain why, in seeking to avoid financial crisis, the government's role as regulator of the financial system does not imply it
GREYUIT [131]

Answer: Market Efficiency

Explanation:

It is important that the Government as a regulator should not get involved in acts that would protect individual institutions from failure because that would defeat the whole purpose of a competitive industry.

If a government is known to directly involve itself in the protection of institutions from failure, efficiency in institutions may become low because of the lack of fear of failure as companies believe that should they run into bad times, they will simply be bailed out by the government so there is no need for them to maintain a competitive edge.

This can lead to a situation where we have companies performing sub optimally in an economy which can only act to reduce the Economic growth of a country.

Government institutions usually have such backing and in a lot of countries are prone to failure. Look at the Bamangwato Concessions Limited (BCL) mine in Botswana for instance that kept failing and refusing to improve it's efficiency because they could always run back to the government for a bailout. Their position eventually became so untenable that bankruptcy was the only option.

3 0
3 years ago
In 1990 ____ of new product development projects were next generation, break through products and by 2004 ___ were next generati
Ksju [112]

Answer:

In 1990, 20 percent (20%) of new product development projects were next generation, break through products and by 2004 , 12 percent (12%) were next generation, break through products according to Professor Cooper.

Explanation:

According to Professor Cooper, In 1990, 20 percent (20%) of new product development projects were next generation, break through products and by 2004 , 12 percent (12%) were next generation, break through products according to Professor Cooper.

7 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
As a financial analyst, you are tasked with evaluating a capital-budgeting project. You were instructed to use the IRR method, a
ozzi

Answer:

Ke 0.08690 = 8.69%

Explanation:

<u>The capital assets price model formula(CAPM) is as follows:</u>

Ke= r_f + \beta (r_m-r_f)  

risk free       = 4% = 4/100 = 0.04

market rate = 11% = 11/100 = 0. 11

premium market: (market rate - risk free) = (0.11-0.04) = 0.07

Beta(non diversifiable risk) 0.67

Ke= 0.04 + 0.67 (0.07)  

Ke 0.08690

5 0
3 years ago
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