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max2010maxim [7]
2 years ago
15

If xis a random number between 0 and 1, then we can use xto simulate a variable that is uniformly distributed between 100 and 20

0 using the formula:
a.100 + x
b. 200 −x
c. 100 + 100x
d. 200x
Business
1 answer:
Eva8 [605]2 years ago
6 0

Answer:

c. 100 + 100x

Explanation:

Given that X is a random number between 0 and 1. To simulate X so that it is uniformly distributed between 100 and 200 will be done by using the formula of 100+100X.

If X = 0, 100+100X will result in the output as 100

If X = 0.5, 100+100X will result in the output as 150

If X = 1, 100+100X will result in the output as 200

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The following transactions apply to Pecan Co. for 2018, its first year of operations:1. Received $100,000 cash in exchange for i
tankabanditka [31]

Answer:

Pecan Co.

a. Accounting equation: Assets = Liabilities + Equity

Assets: Cash ($100,000 + 300,000 - 100,000 - 150,000 - 69,292) + Land ($100,000) + Accounts Receivable ($260,000) = Liabilities: Bank Loan ($245,708) + Equity: Common stock ($100,000) + Retained Earnings ($260,000 - 150,000 - 15,000)

b1: Income Statement

Service Revenue       $260,000

Operating expenses    150,000

Interest expense            15,000

Net income                  $95,000

Balance Sheet

Cash                                 $80,708

Accounts Receivable      260,000

Land                                 100,000

Total assets                  $440,708

Bank Loan                    $245,708

Common stock               100,000

Net income                      95,000

Total liabilities+equity $440,708

b2. The interest expense for 2019 is $15,000 ($300,000 * 5%)

The interest expense for 2020 is $12,285.40 ($300,000 +15,000 - 69,292) * 5%.

Explanation:

a) Data and Calculations:

Cash $100,000 + 300,000 - 100,000 - 150,000 - 69,292 = $80,708

Accounts Receivable $260,000

Land $100,000

Common stock $100,000

Bank Loan $300,000 + 15,000 - 69,292 = $245,708

Service Revenue $260,000

Operating expenses $150,000

Amortization Schedule, using an online financial calculator:

Beginning  Interest              Principal Ending

           Balance                                                       Balance

1 $300,000.00 $15,000.00 $54,292.44 $245,707.56

2 $245,707.56 $12,285.38 $57,007.06 $188,700.50

3 $188,700.50 $9,435.02 $59,857.41 $128,843.08

4 $128,843.08 $6,442.15 $62,850.29 $65,992.80

5 $65,992.80 $3,299.64 $65,992.80 $0.0

6 0
3 years ago
Weather speech is going to be delivered before one or 100 people this speaker should
melomori [17]
Be prepared for the worse, be expected for 100 or even 1000 people to show, even though it might not happen. Be prepared! Run your lines to the point to where they are drilled into your brain and most of all stay calm. You definitely do not want to have a panic attack while your giving your speech. Find a familiar face in the crowd and focus on them, if there are none, imagine everyone naked. Be energetic and do not drone on, make it exciting.
Good luck
7 0
3 years ago
Suppose, at a given federal funds rate, there is an excess supply of reserves in the federal funds market. If the Fed wants the
astraxan [27]

Answer:

B) sale; decrease

  • If the Fed wants the federal funds rate to stay at that level, then it should undertake an open market <u>SALE</u> of bonds, everything else held constant. If the Fed does nothing, however, the federal funds rate will <u>DECREASE</u>.

Explanation:

The federal funds rate is the rate at which banks make overnight loans to other banks or financial institutions. If the supply of money is too high, then the interest rates will start to decrease.

Money is like any other good, and its price is determined by the supply and demand. The higher the supply, the lower the equilibrium price. The equilibrium price of money is the interest rate.

If the Fed wants to avoid the decrease in the interest rate, it must absorb excess supply of money, and the only way it can do it is by selling bonds.

3 0
2 years ago
Moe is an average worker stuck on a team of complacent workers. Nick is an innovator who produces triple the amount of the avera
VLD [36.1K]

Answer:

Wyatt

Explanation:

High outcome interpendence is a concept that encourages cooperation between members on a team. It shows that if a team wins all members will benefit, and if the team fails all members will be adversely affected.

In this scenario Wyatt who is a slacker in the team of Nick will stand to gain more.

In a high outcome interpendence scenario Nick will be forced to improve on the performance of Wyatt in order to meet team objectives.

The other average workers will only gain a little from increased cooperation.

5 0
3 years ago
Computing second-year depreciation and accumulated depreciationAt the beginning of 2016, Air Asia purchased a used airplane at a
Bezzdna [24]

Answer:

1. a.$4,375,000

  b. $7,500,000

 c. $9,800,000

2. $8,750,000

  $18,200,000

  $17,500,000

Explanation:

1. The computation of the depreciation expense for the second year is presented  below:

a) Straight-line method:

= (Purchase value of airplane - residual value) ÷ (useful life)

= ($40,000,000  - $5,000,000) ÷ (8 years)

= ($35,000,000) ÷ (8 years)  

= $4,375,000

In this method, the depreciation is same for all the remaining useful life

(b) Double-declining balance method:

First we have to find the depreciation rate which is shown below:

= One ÷ useful life

= 1 ÷ 8

= 12.5%

Now the rate is double So, 25%

In year 1, the original cost is $40,000,000 so the depreciation is $10,000,000 after applying the 25% depreciation rate

And, in year 2, the $30,000,000 × 25% = $7,500,000

(c) Units-of-production method:

= (Purchase value of airplane - residual value) ÷ (estimated miles)  

= ($40,000,000  - $5,000,000) ÷ ($5,000,000 miles)

= ($35,000,000) ÷ ($5,000,000 miles)  

= $7 per miles

In first year, it would be

= Miles in first year × depreciation per miles

= 1,200,000 miles × $7

= $8,400,000

Now for the second year, it would be  

= Miles in second year × depreciation per miles

= 1,400,000 miles × $7

= $9,800,000

2. The calculation of the accumulated depreciation balance would be

Straight line method:

= $4,375,000 + $4,375,000

= $8,750,000

Double-declining balance method:

= $10,000,000 + $7,500,000

= $17,500,000

Units-of-production method:

= $8,400,000 + $9,800,000

=  $18,200,000

4 0
3 years ago
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