Answer:
−π
----
4
Step-by-step explanation:
Alright, archtan /
tan
−
1
(
x
)
is the inverse of tangent. Tan is
sin
cos
. Like the inverse of sin, the inverse of tan is also restricted to quadrants 1 and 4.
Knowing this we are solving for the inverse of tan -1. We are basically being asked the question what angle/radian does tan(-1) equal. Using the unit circle we can see that tan(1)= pi/4.
Since the "Odds and Evens Identity" states that tan(-x) = -tan(x). Tan(-1)= -pi/4.
Knowing that tan is negative in quadrants 2 and 4. the answer is in either of those two quadrants. BUT!!! since inverse of tan is restricted to quadrants 1 and 4 we are left with the only answer -pi/4.
Answer:
2x - 2
Step-by-step explanation:
There are two steps to take here. First add together the -3 + 2 in the brackets:
2(x - 3 + 2)
= 2(x - 1)
Now use the distributive property and multiply each term in the brackets by two:
2(x - 1)
= 2x - 2
And you now have it in simplest form.
Answer:
The diameter of Circle P is the same length as the radius of Circle Q.
Step-by-step explanation:
The radius of Circle Q is half of 52cm. So you would divide 52 by 2 and get 26cm as the radius of Circle Q. Therefore, the length of the diameter of Circle P is the same length as the radius of Circle Q.
