I think the most approximate answer would be B. As this would increase his/her liabilities but totally NOT assets. The best way, is that you should manage to have more assets than liabilities, in order to go and enjoy your vacation.
I hope you helped you!
152.4 centimeters hope this helps
Answer:
We'll start by putting into consideration, the large sample variance at the numerator.
Barron's Variance will be represented using 1 as the subscript.
i.e.
1 = $583 million
2 = $489 million
So,
0: 1²= 2²
: 1² ≠ 2²
=1² / 2²=
= $583 million² / $489 million²
= 583²/489²
= 1.42
Degrees of freedom 15 and 9
Using F table, area in tail is greater than 0.10.
Two-tail p-value is greater than .20
Exact p-value corresponding to F= 1.42 is .5874 (See F table)
p-value > .10
So,we do not reject 0.
We cannot conclude there is a statistically significant difference between the variances for the two companies.
GAAP requires you to use accrual based accounting (where revenue is earned and expenses are incurred) and not cash based.
So, The type needed is choice A.
