LeBron James is one of the best basketball players in the country, was selected by the Cleveland Cavaliers as the first pick in the 2003 NBA draft, signing a three-year contract worth almost $13 million, with an option for a fourth year at $5.8 million. Had he decided to attend college instead, James would have incurred an opportunity cost of at least $19 million in forgone income to earn a four-year college degree.
Opportunity cost is the value you would gain or lose if you choose a different path or solution. The opportunity cost in this scenario is deciding to play in the NBA since college was too expensive. LeBron James ultimately saved time and money by taking the detour because he received a contract worth close to $13 million; otherwise, he would have had to pay more and spend more time attending a four-year college.
LeBron's decision to join the NBA right after high school graduation has an opportunity cost because he might have attended a four-year university or college instead. He was chosen by the Cleveland Cavaliers as the first overall choice in the 2003 NBA Draft
To learn more about Opportunity cost here,
brainly.com/question/13036997
#SPJ4
The loose fitting skin is one of the defining characteristic of the amphibians in which the toad, frog and almost any other creature in between belong. Some of the many useful and sophisticated purpose of this are: (1) helping with respiration, (2) prevention of hydration loss, (3) easy locomotion. This enables the animals to easily adapt to the environment once it shifts to the land from the water bodies.
Answer:
Jordan Enterprises
1) The impairment loss = $110,000.
2) Journal Entry to record the impairment loss:
Debit Broadcast License Impairment Loss $110,000
Credit Accumulated Impairment Loss $110,000
Explanation:
a) Data and Calculations:
Broadcast license original cost (book value) = $786,000
Market value of similar broadcast license = 676,000
Impairment loss = $110,000
b) US GAAP defines impairment loss as the decrease in an asset's net carrying value. This means that impairment loss arises when the book or net carrying value is greater than the future estimated cash flows or the market value of the asset.
Answer: Machine B because it has the lower Present Value
Explanation:
<h2>
Machine A</h2>
= Present Value of income - Present Value of Costs
Present value of Income;
Sold for $5,000 after 10 years.
= 5,000/ (1 + 8%)^10
= $2,315.97
Present Value of Costs;
Purchased for $48,000.
Maintenance of $1,000 per year for years.
Present value of maintenance= 1,000 * Present value factor of annuity, 10 years, 8%
= 1,000 * 6.7101
= $6,710.10
Machine A Present Value
= 2,315.97 - 6,710.10 - 48,000
= -$52,394
<h2>
Machine B</h2>
No salvage value.
Present Value of costs
Purchased for $40,000.
Present value of maintenance = (4,000 / (1 + 8%)^3) + (5,000 / ( 1 + 8)^6) + (6,000 / ( 1 + 8%)^8)
= -$9,567.79
Present Value = -40,000 - 9,567.79
= -$49,568
Answer: See explanation
Explanation:
Debt = 0.65
Weight = 39.39%
Cost for debt = 2%
Product = 39.39% × 2%
= 0.3939 × 0.02
= 0.007878
Equity = 1.00
Weight = 60.61%
Cost for equity = 6%
Product = 60.61% × 6%
= 0.6061 × 0.06
= 0.036366
Weighted average floatation cost:
= 0.007878 + 0.036366
= 0.044244
= 4.42%
The true cost of the building will then be:
= Funds needed / (1 - Floatation cost)
= $43,000,000 / (1 - 0.044244)
= $43,000,000 / 0.955756
= $44,990,562
