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Diano4ka-milaya [45]
3 years ago
9

Why does it take 3 copies of 1/6 to show the same amount as 1 copy of 1/2?

Mathematics
1 answer:
antiseptic1488 [7]3 years ago
6 0
You can solve this by putting the number of copies in the top part of the fraction. If you replace the one in the top part of 1/6 with 3, you get the fraction 3/6. Half of six is three and half of two is one, so both fractions are equal. You can test this be dividing the 3 in the top by 3 and the 6 in the bottom by three. Your result will be 1/2. Although there are three times ad many copies, each copy is three times as small, so it balances out.
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3 years ago
Preston can paint 375 square feet in 3 hours. At the same rate, how long would it take him to paint 812.5 square feet?
charle [14.2K]

Answer:

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Step-by-step explanation:

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6 0
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I need to finish this, can someone please help!
taurus [48]

Answer:

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a parallelogram has sides that are parallel to the opposite side. This means that y + 7 is going to be parallel to 20.

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this means that we can set up the equation to find y as:

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then, you can proceed to find y by isolating it:

y + 7 = 20 ; so therefore

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y           =     13

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4 0
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