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Ksju [112]
2 years ago
8

Find m∠DOC. Find m∠DOC. Find m∠DOC.

Mathematics
1 answer:
kirza4 [7]2 years ago
7 0

Answer:

We need more Info than "Find m<DOC"

Step-by-step explanation:

You might be interested in
Which describes this angle?
Arisa [49]

Answer:

Your answer would be the first option.

A right angle is 90 degrees

An obtuse angle is more than 90 degrees and that angle is more that 90 degrees

6 0
3 years ago
Sid starts with savings of £13
MAVERICK [17]

Answer:

The savings of Sid and Tim will be in 17:9 in 6 weeks.

Step-by-step explanation:

Initial savings of Sid = £ 13

Initial savings of Tim = £ 0

For each successive week Sid saved = £ 3.5

For each successive week Tim saved = £ 3

Let us assume that after "x weeks" the amounts of Sid and Tim are in ratio 17:9.

If Sid saves £ 3.5 in one week, in x weeks he will £ 3.5x. Since he had £ 13 initially, total amount he would have in x weeks will be £ (13 + 3.5x)

If Time saves £ 3 one week, in x weeks he will save £ 3x. Since, he didn't have any money initially, in x weeks he would have saved £ 3x

The ratio of their savings in x weeks would be 17:9

So,

Sid's saving : Tim's saving = 17 : 9

Using the values of expressions, we get:

13+3.5x:3x=17:9\\\\\frac{13+3.5x}{3x}=\frac{17}{9}\\\\ 9(13+3.5x)=17(3x)\\\\ 117+31.5x=51x\\\\ 117=51x-31.5x\\\\ 117=19.5x\\\\ x=\frac{117}{19.5}\\\\ x=6

This means, the savings of Sid and Tim will be in 17:9 in 6 weeks.

5 0
3 years ago
(4.1.4) Let X and Y be Bernoulli random variables. Let Z = X + Y. a. Show that if X and Y cannot both be equal to 1, then Z is a
Fynjy0 [20]

Step-by-step explanation:

Given that,

a)

X ~ Bernoulli (p_x) and Y ~ Bernoulli (y_x)

X + Y = Z

The possible value for Z are Z = 0 when X = 0 and Y = 0

and Z = 1 when X = 0 and Y = 1 or when X = 1 and Y = 0

If X and Y can not be both equal to 1 , then the probability mass function of the random variable Z takes on the value of 0 for any value of Z other than 0 and 1,

Therefore Z is a Bernoulli random variable

b)

If X and Y can not be both equal to  1

then,

p_z = P(X=1 or Y=1)\\

p_z = P(X=1)+P(Y=1)-P(=1 and Y =1)

p_z = P(x=1)+P(Y=1)\\\\p_z=p_x+p_y

c)

If both X = 1 and Y = 1 then Z = 2

The possible values of the random variable Z are 0, 1 and 2.

since a  Bernoulli variable should be take on only values 0 and 1 the random variable Z does not have Bernoulli distribution

7 0
2 years ago
................................................<br>....
Dmitry_Shevchenko [17]

Answer:

HAVE A GOOD DAY :)))))))) <3

Step-by-step explanation:

5 0
2 years ago
W + 4 = 16<br> Need for a test
Nady [450]

Answer:

12

Step-by-step explanation:

when + go to the other side it has to be -

w=16-4

=12

7 0
2 years ago
Read 2 more answers
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